Questions tagged [greek]

Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (abbreviated as "LXX" - the pre-Christian Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

The language developed under the spread of Hellenic culture by Alexander the Great during the 4th century BCE and became the lingua franca of the Roman Empire and surrounding regions, continuing on into the Byzantine Empire until approximately 600 CE.

Further information on texts, grammar, and historical development can be found in a Q&A on Meta.Hermeneutics.SE.

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How are we to understand «ἀπαιτοῦσιν» in Luke 12:20?

In this verse Jesus is relating the story of a rich man whose life suddenly and unexpectedly ended. According to Greek text, we read the following. Luke 12:20 (NA28) 28 εἶπεν δὲ αὐτῷ ὁ θεός· ἄφρων, ταύτῃ τῇ νυκτὶ τὴν ψυχήν σου ἀπαιτοῦσιν ἀπὸ σοῦ· ἃ…
Joseph
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Why does the NIV translates 1 John 2:15: love 'for' the father instead of 'of'

Most translations (KJV, ESV, NASB...) translates of. ESV: Do not love the world or the things in the world. If anyone loves the world, the love of the Father is not in him. The NIV translates for. Do not love the world or anything in the world.…
user35803
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Does the original Greek help resolve the ambiguous “of” in Matthew 28:19?

Most translations of Matthew 28:19 begin with: “Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them … What "of" means here is ambiguous: All people from all nations should be baptized. (Proselytize) A few people from each nation…
Ray Butterworth
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Can "proginosko" plausibly mean "know in former times"?

The Greek dictionaries I've seen so far consistently give "proginosko" as having the basic meaning "know in advance" or "get to know in advance"; here, the prefix "pro-" has the sense "beforehand", i.e. before the actualisation of whatever or…
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Do Matthew 24:27 and Luke 17:24 refer to the sunrise instead of lightning?

Matthew 24:27 YLT ... for as the lightning doth come forth from the east, and doth appear unto the west, so shall be also the presence of the Son of Man; ... Two things to note: The Greek word for lightning here is ἀστραπή (astrape or something…
colboynik
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John 3:16 - Might οὕτως be a reference to Moses?

I am a pastor and not a Greek scholar, but I had an interesting conversation with a Bible translator friend over this verse yesterday. The curiosity lies in the fact that basically all translations tie the οὕτως of John 316 to the subsequent ὥστε…
Robb
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prayers = incense in Revelation alternative translation

In Reveation 8:3-4 the words ταῖς προσευχαῖς are translated in KJV as "with the prayers". Where does "with" come from? Is it translator's extrapolation? Can the places in question be translated simply "the prayers", so that the verses read: "...and…
jackdale
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Confusion between "dead" and "asleep"

I was researching the difference between "dead and "asleep" when I found this 1 Corinthians 15:6 - What does "Fallen Asleep" really mean? It answered my question, but left me with another question. Before you read my question, please understand that…
matt
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Romans 14:23 should it be translated "whatever is not of faith is sin" or "sin is whatever not of faith"?

In Romans 14:23 after looking at the Greek briefly I noticed "is" comes after sin, should Romans 14:23 read "sin is whatever not of faith?". Grammatically should it be that way or is "Whatever is not from faith is sin" the correct way? Romans 14:23…
Kira M
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How is the accusative case applied in the first phrase of Heb 11:11?

This question is primarily asking for a technical explanation of the initial Greek phrase in Heb 11:11. In studying the case for the King James translations of Heb 11:11, I noticed there are 2 words in the accusative case as highlighted below in the…
Alan
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Is σωτήρ or Σωτήρ proper when refering to Christ?

From the different Greek Bibles and online references I've looked at, different versions of same verse may or may not capitalize the Σ. Does σωτήρ properly refer to Christ and does it matter if its capitalized? What is the difference between σωτήρας…
Mike Fisher
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What is the meaning of χαρίζομαι in the New Testament?

I have appreciated the information on this site regarding the meaning of ἄφεσις and I am trying to compare that information to an accurate definition of χαρίζομαι. There may be no significance in the comparison and yet there might be. I have read a…
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In koine Greek, can tenses change the meaning of words like the middle voice?

I recently found out that the middle voice in koine can cause a word to change its meaning completely for example a passive word in koine may mean "to rule" but the middle version of the same word may mean "to begin". Is this the same for other…
Kira M
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Is there significance to the variations in "day of the Lord" in Greek scripture?

This expression occurs several times in Greek scripture: Verse Greek Word roots English Acts 2:20 τὴν ἡμέραν κυρίου ho hēmera kyrios the day lord 1 Corinthians 5:5 τῇ ἡμέρᾳ τοῦ κυρίου Ἰησοῦ ho hēmera ho kyrios iēsous the day the lord…
Ray Butterworth
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Translation of the Greek prepositions,”en” and “dia”

English versions of the New Testament seem to take considerable latitude in translation of the Greek prepositions, “en” and “dia” and at times they seem to be used interchangeably. Specific choice of English word used to translate can introduce some…
Nelly
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