Does Hebrew ever give masculine modifiers to grammatically feminine subjects? (Yes or No - and where). For example, "Julie gave money [he gave]". I'm just wondering if this exists, as I just discovered that groups of people can be given singular masculine verbs if they "act in unity" which seems to "break" standard grammatical rules. I learned this from another stackexchange article:
Why is a singular verb used to describe both Moses and Aaron?
I can't read Hebrew, which is why I'm seeing if anyone has run across this, or knows where to check. I can check the grammar if someone tells me where to look.
This is what I found:
"—So feminine forms with a masculine meaning are construed with a masculine predicate, e.g. Ec 129 הָיָה קֹהֶ֫לֶת חָכָם the preacher was wise."
It led me to this article and I'm trying to see if I can get it. http://www.jstor.org/stable/3262325 Masculine Predicates with Feminine Subjects in the Hebrew Bible Mayer G. Slonim Journal of Biblical Literature Vol. 63, No. 3 (Sep., 1944), pp. 297-302
Thank you.
– Christine J. Newman Nov 15 '15 at 08:00