I have data where 400 participants rated a set of 8 given scenarios on the scales "valence" and "emotional arousal". The scenarios were designed in a 2 (setting: Europe vs. Asia) x 2 (complexity: low vs. high) x 2 (density: low vs. high) design (experimental manipulation).
I would like to model the fixed effects of complexity and density on valence. Would it be wrong to include random intercepts for scenario if the only variance left in scenario is known to be due to the different levels in setting?
lmer(valence ~ complexity * density + (1|participant) + (1|scenario), data = df)
Should I instead include random intercepts for different levels of setting?
lmer(valence ~ complexity * density + (1|participant) + (1|setting), data = df)
This seems wrong to me since there are only two levels of setting (which are also part of an experimental manipulation - I somehow remember that such variables should not be chosen as levels in mixed models since they are not random). It also begs the question why I do not include setting as a further fixed effect, which would make random intercepts for scenario obsolete, but I do not want to include fixed effects for setting since this is not the focus of this analysis.
In my data, the AIC for the second version (1|setting) indicates worse fit in comparison to the inclusion of (1|scenario). However, the fixed effects of complexity and density completely disappear in this model (same estimate but high p-values). When I use (1|setting) or even no random intercept on scenario level at all, all p values are < 0001.
How do I specify random intercepts correctly in this case?
settingshould be a fixed effect. But given that the dataset is balanced and you seem to be ignoring interactions, including it or not should not affect your inferences about the other two parameters. Personally, I would analyse it both ways and present it that way. But I'd also be concerned about interactions and would consider a multiverse analysis examining possible interactions. – mkt Mar 01 '23 at 16:09participant. – mkt Mar 01 '23 at 19:12valence ~ emo_arousal + (1|participant)where the experimental manipulations are not part of the equation, would that require random effects for 'scenario' or should I reduce this also to random effects forparticipant? I have seen that people sometimes also include(1|time)which would be the equivalent to(1|scenario), right? Or is that something that is only done if there are repeated observations for the same trial? – mkks Mar 02 '23 at 08:23