I am studying Spanish with Michel Thomas Method. It says the following:
I don’t know him. = No lo conozco.
I don't understand this? I thought lo means it. Shouldn't it be le? If not, then when do you use lo to mean he?
I am studying Spanish with Michel Thomas Method. It says the following:
I don’t know him. = No lo conozco.
I don't understand this? I thought lo means it. Shouldn't it be le? If not, then when do you use lo to mean he?
Because he is the direct object. And the masculine direct object is lo. Although, you could still get away with saying No le conozco, it would mean more like
I don't know him know him.'
or
He isn't known to me.
As in, I don't know how he is as a person... ,I haven't gotten to know him.
Whereas, no lo conozco is straightforward don't know who he is.
As mentioned by guifa, LE in that context can also express courtesy. While lo can, as you mentioned in your OP big_smile, refer to it.. and if you're trying to be formal, you definitely don't want to refer to someone as it
lo as being equal to it, but more of a general pronoun that can stand for anything? If so, when do you know when to use lo and le?
– big_smile
Jul 07 '15 at 16:48
lo can be translated to it in English... it simply refers to an object, a person, a place, or a thing.
– dockeryZ
Jul 07 '15 at 16:50
no can be omitted. Thank goodness that isn't the case in Spanish, as it gets very confusing.
– big_smile
Jul 08 '15 at 16:03
In "no lo conozco", the "lo" stands for "him". Therefore making it I don't know "him" as opposed to "no conozco" which would just mean "I don't know".
loforhewhen there exists no direct object.le, when used with a verb as an indirect object, can translate toto him/her/itandfor him/her/it. – Jacob Jul 07 '15 at 17:17