3

There's been a debate on a D&D discord server that's caused me a lot of trouble. Here is the question: if a wizard 2/cleric 2 has a wizard spell prepared from being a cleric, rather than from being a wizard, then should the wizard-cleric not be able to then scribe that spell into their spellbook the same as if they had it prepared from anywhere else?

Edit: This is different to the bard/wizard question due to bards having spells known, and clerics preparing spells just as wizards do.

Axios Verum
  • 59
  • 2
  • 1
    @KorvinStarmast I mean I was going to propose this one but it's closed as a dupe of the one I linked before – Sdjz Oct 24 '19 at 16:12
  • 1
    Please note that the three answers at the dupe take a slightly different approach, and that the difference in votes isn't all that much; you are not bound to accept the accepted answer, but it may be, to you, the one that makes the most sense. – KorvinStarmast Oct 24 '19 at 16:28

0 Answers0