9

When you cast a spell as a bonus action (either because the spell takes a bonus action to cast by default like misty step, or because you use the Quickened Spell metamagic on it as a sorcerer), you are then prevented from casting 1st-level spells or higher as your action. This of course includes the spells that can be cast from many wands and staves.

But what about the Wand of Wonder? Some of its random effects are indeed spells, like lightning bolt (and are therefore subject to the above casting rule), but some are non-spell effects, like making grass grow or rain fall (and are therefore not subject to the above casting rule).

So, if a character casts as a bonus action then wishes to use the Wand, what happens?

  1. He cannot use it, as it might cast a spell?

  2. He can use it, but if the random roll falls on a spell, said spell is cancelled?

  3. As previous choice, but instead of being cancelled, the spell is delayed until next round?

  4. Other possibility?

V2Blast
  • 49,864
  • 10
  • 220
  • 304
Gael L
  • 28,679
  • 22
  • 138
  • 350

2 Answers2

4

They can use it, but if the random roll falls on a spell, it fails

The rule for casting multiple spells in one turn says:

You must use a bonus action on your turn to cast the spell, provided that you haven't already taken a bonus action this turn. You can't cast another spell during the same turn, except for a cantrip with a casting time of 1 action.

So after casting a spell as a bonus action, there is nothing stopping you from using the wand as an action, but you cannot cast any spells above cantrip level on this turn.

Casting a spell from a wand is still casting a spell and plays by the same rules

While holding it, you can use an action to expend 1 of its charges and choose a target [...] Roll d100 and consult the following table to discover what happens.

If the effect causes you to cast a spell from the wand, the spell's save DC is 15.

The wand of wonder, like all wands, counts as you casting a spell. It is even in the description for the item. All the spell effects say:

You cast [Spell].

There is nothing that would excuse this casting from the rule that says:

You can't cast another spell during the same turn, except for a cantrip with a casting time of 1 action.

And none of the spells contained withing the Wand of Wonder are cantrips.

Thus, if they used the wand after casting a bonus action spell and a spell effect is rolled, the spell would fail because it is not a cantrip.

Any of the non-spell effects would happen normally

There are no restrictions on the activation of other features of magic items though so it would not make any sense to disallow the use of the magic item entirely in this case.

If they cast a spell beforehand though, they will have to accept that there is a risk of them wasting their action with the Wand of Wonder.

Rubiksmoose
  • 94,696
  • 21
  • 483
  • 580
  • 1
    How is this not a case of specific beats general? The specific wand forces you to cast a spell as it's effect for activating it. – David Coffron Jul 07 '18 at 15:58
  • 1
    @DavidCoffron because casting a spell is casting a spell. No exception is made for being "forced" to cast a spell because of a random effect. You are still casting a spell and thus the restriction on casting it still apply. If you allow the "You cast..." language to override the restriction here than all wands are now allowed to supersede the casting restriction since all wands "force" you to cast a spell as their effect and use the same language. – Rubiksmoose Jul 07 '18 at 16:01
  • 1
    No they don't use the same language. "You can use your action... to cast" is very different – David Coffron Jul 07 '18 at 16:06
  • 1
    @DavidCoffron How is that mechanically different? Also, regardless why does it matter since you are still casting a spell either way? – Rubiksmoose Jul 07 '18 at 16:09
  • 2
    Because can and do are different. Can't beats can every time. Do beats can't since it is more specific – David Coffron Jul 07 '18 at 16:23
  • 1
    @DavidCoffron I shall think on that as it is a fair point. – Rubiksmoose Jul 07 '18 at 16:27
  • 1
    Check out the related link I just put up under the question. – NotArch Jul 07 '18 at 17:43
  • 3
    @NautArch I'm not sure that really helps me any. There are many ways to cast a spell without taking the Cast a Spell action. And the restriction on casting spells does not depend on taking the Cast a Spell action. – Rubiksmoose Jul 07 '18 at 17:49
  • Possibly worth noting is that the enlarge/reduce options are worded differently: "[...] You enlarge the target as if you had cast enlarge/reduce. If the target can't be affected by that spell or if you didn't target a creature, you become the target. [...] You shrink yourself as if you had cast enlarge/reduce on yourself. [...]" Oh, nevermind, you actually already asked about this – Exempt-Medic May 25 '20 at 21:17
3

The spell is cast anyway immediately

The Wand of Wonder explicitly states that you cast the spell.

[i.e.] 01-05: You cast slow.

This effect is non-optional and more specific than the general rule against casting non-cantrip spells in the same turn as bonus action spells. You are not using your action to cast a spell, but to select a target. The resulting casting is a consequence of the d100 roll.

This is different than other wands that say things like

You can use an action... to cast...

These optional castings are restricted by the "can't cast" bonus action spell rule, but the effect of the Wand of Wonder directly causes you to cast the spell.

Note: A similar case includes the Wild Magic Surge table
Note 2: This also allows a Barbarian to cast a spell while raging

David Coffron
  • 74,667
  • 14
  • 306
  • 503
  • Holy macaroni ! – Gael L Jul 07 '18 at 12:59
  • 2
    Does this mean that you can cast any spell from a wand or item and not have any restriction on your bonus action spell since they all use similar language? Wand of Fireball for example "While holding it, you can use an action to expend 1 or more of its charges to cast the fireball spell (save DC 15) from it." – Rubiksmoose Jul 07 '18 at 15:02
  • 1
    @Rubiksmoose no, since that is an action to cast a spell. Not to choose a target for a random effect – David Coffron Jul 07 '18 at 15:04
  • 2
    @DavidCoffron I don't see how that would matter honestly. The fact is you are using an action to activate a magic item some of whose spells result in you casting a spell. "If the effect causes you to cast a spell from the wand, the spell's save DC is 15." You are still casting a spell. If you say that the "you cast..." language overrides the specific casting restriction that logic would still hold true with other wands. I just don't see how the randomness effects anything at all in this answer. – Rubiksmoose Jul 07 '18 at 15:10
  • 1
    @Rubiksmoose the randomness doesn't. The description of the action makes the difference. "You are not using your action to cast a spell, but to select a target" – David Coffron Jul 07 '18 at 15:21
  • 2
    Note that you can only cast a cantrip and a bonus action spell regardless of the action/method used to cast it. If the spell isn't a cantrip and you've already cast a bonus action spell it can't happen. I don't see where your answer addresses that or how the fact that the action is stated to target affects it. – Rubiksmoose Jul 07 '18 at 15:42