Percent change is a very common calculation in finance. It helps us track growth. The formula is:
[(y2 - y1)/y1] x 100 = percent change
If the start period is $0 (i.e. no money was made in the first period, so y1 is 0), the formula divides by 0, which is mathematically meaningless.
However, pragmatically, we understand that there is still meaning in the change. Some people think it should reflect a 100% change, an option that seems sensible to me. Others say infinity, which is not sensible at all. I've seen some opt to just change the start period to 1, than calculate, which could yield anything, but that can lead to skewed values in more complex calculations, not to mention changes that are orders of magnitude different than what you might expect. Then the purists insist that the only correct answer is undefined.
In finance, what is the convention for this issue. If I have y1 = 0 and y2 = 896, what is the percent increase? What do my manager and investors expect to see?
Personally, as a manager and business owner, I want to see 100% with an asterisk note: y1 = 0.
y1 = 224you have percent increase of 200%, buty1 = 0is increase of only 100%? Unfortunately, I do not have an answer, but I do strongly suggest that 100% is very deceiving and makes no sense when comparing to actual changes in a similar percent-range. – Aaron Aug 31 '17 at 13:21undefinedis the correct answer, see this Q&A on Math Exchange for more details on why infinity times 0 is undefined. – EJoshuaS - Stand with Ukraine Sep 01 '17 at 17:18infinity. anything above zero is, by percentage, infinitely higher than zero. – hanshenrik Sep 03 '17 at 08:25