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This is my first post so bear with me, but something I've been thinking about lately is: Why didn't I ever question the relationship between the derivative and the integral when I was taking calculus?

Let me explain what I mean: In most courses, the derivative is introduced as the slope of a curve at a point, or the "instantaneous rate of change". Then the integral is introduced as the area under a curve. Then students are told that these two things "undo" each other (the fundamental theorem of calculus). So now I'm wondering, why didn't I ever question why these "undo" each other? It's not intuitive at all. For example, addition and subtraction, multiplication and division, logarithms and exponentials; all of these things I can intuitively understand why they "undo" each other. But how does something that represents the area under a curve "undo" something that represents an instantaneous rate of change? What is the connection between those two concepts? Is there a better way to explain these concepts that makes the fundamental theorem of calculus more intuitive?

Looking forward to hearing some of y'alls responses. Thanks!

Brain Gainz
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    $[\cdots]$ why didn't I ever question why these "undo" each other? --- Your calculus experience is probably in the minority, because it is fairly standard (at least in U.S. introductory calculus courses, both high school and college) to make a big deal about the connection, usually at the end of the first semester, this being especially the case since the rise of "reform calculus" from the late 1980s on. That said, see right brain explanation and left brain explanation. – Dave L Renfro Apr 02 '20 at 05:26
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    See also Special Focus: The Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (AP-Calculus, Professional Development Workshop Materials, College Board, 2006-2007, 132 pages). – Dave L Renfro Apr 02 '20 at 05:32
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    This seems more like a math question than a math education question. –  Apr 02 '20 at 12:48
  • Thanks for your response. I took cal 1 in a 5 week summer course, so it is a good possibility that it was either rushed through or that I didn’t spend enough time thinking about it. I understand the proofs of the FTC 1 & 2, but the intuition behind why these two concepts “undo” each other still isn’t there for me. The resources you linked do look pretty good though. Maybe I just need to get a really big cup of coffee and spend a few hours reading and thinking. Thanks again! – Brain Gainz Apr 02 '20 at 12:53
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    but the intuition behind why these two concepts “undo” each other --- In retrospect, and with our modern notation and mathematical scaffolding (such as being familiar with representations of functions in the standard $xy$-graph form), it seems almost straightforward. But when NOT looked at in retrospect and WITHOUT our modern notation, it took (mostly) Newton to put it all together, a person who makes pretty much anyone's list for the top 3 mathematicians in all of human history (both ability and influence considered; possibly even when either one of these alone is considered). – Dave L Renfro Apr 02 '20 at 17:26
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    spend a few hours reading and thinking --- You'll also want to look at Calculus Made Easy by Silvanus P. Thompson, first published in 1910. There are links to several different versions/editions in the Wikipedia article I've given a link to. – Dave L Renfro Apr 02 '20 at 17:37
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    In countries, where physics is a mandatory course in grade school, the traditional layman explanation is through kinematics. Average speed v, by definition is displacement s over time t. Start with the simplest case of uniform motion, draw a graph in (t, s), it would be a line climbing up. Tangent at any point is at the same angle (similarity of right triangles), this is the derivative by definition, which is speed. Draw speed in (t, v). Area below it is displacement. Continue with uniform acceleration and then with no-uniform motion, slicing up the area under speed into thin vertical bands. – Rusty Core Apr 02 '20 at 21:14
  • @DaveLRenfro by modern notation you mean Leibniz notation right? – Michael Bächtold Apr 04 '20 at 07:01
  • @Michael Bächtold: Only partly. There's greater clarity now in both notation and precision in what real numbers are, what limits are, what functions are (including domain refinements independent of formula descriptions), and much more that allow us now to be much more easily able to grasp/originate various ideas behind the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (and other topics). Take a look at old analytic geometry graphs. I don't think the $x$-axis was even included in diagrams until fairly recently (middle or late 1700s?). Notation and concern for endpoints of intervals not until the early 1900s. – Dave L Renfro Apr 04 '20 at 11:15
  • @DaveLRenfro Drawing graphs of functions seems to be older than Cartan. Concerning notation: the fundamental theorem in a modern notation might read $\int_a^b f' =f(b)-f(a)$ while using differentials it might read $\int_{x=a}^b dy =y|{x=b}-y|{x=b}$. I find the second much more intuitive since it just says: the sum of all the little changes is the whole change. In fact, if I'm not mistaken, Leibniz never celebrated the fundamental theorem as something profound (did he even call it a theorem?), since it was probably obvious to him. – Michael Bächtold Apr 04 '20 at 15:08
  • cont. Unfortunately modern math notation can't really make sense of Leibniz notation unless you talk of manifolds. See If d/dx is an operator, on what does it operate? – Michael Bächtold Apr 04 '20 at 15:12
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    @BenCrowell I think what makes this a math ed question is wanting better intuition to explain the relationship. Also, the fact that many of us didn't really get it until we were teaching speaks volumes to how much this is an education issue. – Sue VanHattum Apr 04 '20 at 20:52
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    @SueVanHattum Exactly - that's why I posted it here. The funny thing is that when I learned how to prove the FTC in real analysis, I didn't find either of the proofs too difficult. But the intuition behind the overall concept still wasn't there. Then recently I realized that if a student came to me and asked "Why do these two concepts undo each other?", my best response would be to show them the proof. That's why I figured this was a math ed question, because I'm specifically asking what the best way is to explain this to a student and make it more intuitive. – Brain Gainz Apr 05 '20 at 18:43
  • It took Newton and Leibniz to see that the integral and the derivative are related. Not something you should have thought of yourself, but should be part of a good calculus course. Related: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1991575/why-cant-the-second-fundamental-theorem-of-calculus-be-proved-in-just-two-lines/1991585#1991585 – Ethan Bolker Apr 05 '20 at 21:28

10 Answers10

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You start by noticing that the Riemann sums (multiplication followed by addition) and the difference quotients (subtraction followed by division) undo each other. Their limits -- the integral and the derivative -- still undo each other.

Added: The first sentence is a part of what is called “Discrete Calculus” https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Discrete_calculus

Peter Saveliev
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  • Very nice....... – James S. Cook Apr 02 '20 at 21:07
  • I've never thought of it like that. Thanks! – Brain Gainz Apr 03 '20 at 00:31
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    Wow. I'm unsure whether this intuition can be made to correspond to some rigorous proof, but it's just solid enough to make me feel it gave me some insight into the mechanism of the theorem's truth and not mere word-soup hand-waving. And I think the maximal spacing in a partition (that goes to zero for the Riemann integral) even corresponds to the step size in the difference quotient in a suitable sense. – Vandermonde Apr 03 '20 at 01:23
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    @Vandermonde You are correct. By the way, this will be in the third volume of my book Calculus Illustrated: https://www.amazon.com/dp/B082WKCYHY – Peter Saveliev Apr 03 '20 at 01:44
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    Surprising how entirely abstract and formal mathematical thinking can be intuitive :-). Perhaps not for everybody, but even this engineer sees symmetries. – Peter - Reinstate Monica Apr 03 '20 at 10:21
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  • Can you please exhibit the formula that you're hinting to? 2. Can you please clarify 1. which "Riemann sums" you mean? 3. Which "difference quotients"? 4. Which "limits"?
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  • @Greek - Area 51 Proposal Both are defined on a partition of the interval. The limit is over all partitions with the mesh approaching zero. The result is a formula that is the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus. – Peter Saveliev Apr 04 '20 at 23:34
  • How come your answer is so succinct while your book drags along? I could not get past the first fifteen pages, and I do not appreciate at all the Excel-like formulas and screenshots. Presuming you came from Russia, you should know of better, clearer, no-nonsense textbooks. Why haven't you modeled your creation on them, instead using gaudy post-NCTM Standards textbooks as a yardstick? One can open Landsberg's physics textbook for grade school at the very first kinematics section to figure out what derivative and integral is, all the while the book never mentioning derivative and integral. – Rusty Core Apr 05 '20 at 20:30
  • @Rusty Core Well, this is all about the audience. I don’t know where you come from, but this is a semester long book meant for a not-so-well-prepared American freshman. I try to present the mathematical ideas through modelling and visualization (and proofs). Thanks for the compliment though. – Peter Saveliev Apr 05 '20 at 21:43
  • This is a great answer, but to apply it literally, wouldn't you need some sort of uniform-in-$x$ convergence $\frac{f(x + h) - f(x)}h \xrightarrow{h \to 0} f'(x)$? – LSpice Apr 06 '20 at 00:02
  • @ LSpice Yes, you are correct. – Peter Saveliev Apr 06 '20 at 00:14
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    If one considers the differential $\text{d}$ and the integral $\int$ as the fundamental concepts of calculus (as opposed to $\frac{\text{d}(-)}{\text{d}x}$ and $\int(-)\text{d} x$), then the wording is even more simple: difference and sum undo each other. (Actually Leibniz called $\int$ the sum, before Bernoulli suggested integral) – Michael Bächtold Apr 06 '20 at 15:58
  • @ Michael Bächtold Yes, and this is matched by the actual sums and differences of the sequences. – Peter Saveliev Apr 07 '20 at 13:10