I saw in Wiktionary that the imperfect and aorist conjugations (for the first person singular) of the verb λογαριάζω are λογάριαζα and λογάριασα, respectively. However, for the verb απουσιάζω, the respective conjugations are απουσίαζα and απουσίασα. Why does the latter have the accent on ι, whereas the first one has it on α. The particle ια is not considered as a unique syllable, is it? I had the idea that normally the tenses for imperfect and aorist have the accent on the antepenult. Is there a rule for that?
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4I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is about Modern Greek; the current site policy is that only Ancient Greek questions are on-topic. – TKR Jun 11 '17 at 18:20
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... unless you recognize the very interesting fact that the regressive-accent-for-verbs rule is still in action after all these thousands of years. @TKR. – fdb Jun 11 '17 at 21:30
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@fdb, it is certainly interesting, but is not a fact about Ancient Greek, so IMO this is not the place for it (as per our Meta discussion). – TKR Jun 11 '17 at 23:46
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@TKR Seconded: An interesting question, but one which our current policy specifically excludes. – brianpck Jun 12 '17 at 00:17
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The forms that you quoted are Modern (not Classical) Greek. In MG the group -ια- is usually pronounced as a single syllable /ja/. In this case, the regressive accent goes back one more syllable. Broadly speaking, forms with ιά (one syllable) are genuine Demotic, while those with ία (two syllables) are borrowed from or influenced by Katharevousa.
fdb
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