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Verse 10 of the Stabat Mater reads: Fac ut ardeat cor meum/ in amando Christum Deum/ ut sibi complaceam. I am stumped by "sibi" in line 3. Most translations give "that I may please him", but sibi seems to be a dative relexive. How should the line be interpreted?

IanF
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  • You're right this is strange! I've found a few sources (like this one) that have "ut illi complaceam" in this line, which makes a lot more sense. – brianpck Aug 24 '23 at 16:21
  • Looking through Google Books, it appears that (a) a number of people have been irritated by this over the years, and (b) explanations are along the lines of (1) the author was Italian, (b) sibi for ei or ipsi is often seen in Medieaval Latin (really?), or (3) sibi for ei or ipsi is often seen in Late Latin and the Vulgate (really???). – Sebastian Koppehel Aug 24 '23 at 20:35
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    I. J. G. Scheller (tr. George Walker), A Copious Latin Grammar, 2nd ed., Vol. 1, London: J. Murray 1838, pp. 278-279: "This is the rule to which the learner should be accustomed before he notices the exceptions in the ancients. When for instance no obscurity is likely to arise, sui, sibi, &c. may be used for eius, ei, &c.: [...] Examples of this kind are innumerable in the ancients, e.g. [many examples] On the contrary ei &c. are used for sibi &c.: [a few examples] " – njuffa Aug 24 '23 at 23:48
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    @njuffa Looks like the beginning of an answer. – cmw Aug 25 '23 at 01:04
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    I came across a claim that in the High Middle Ages / Late Middle Ages (so around the time Stabat Mater originated in the 13th century) "sibi" came to be used freely in place of "ei", citing [Stotz 4 IX § 38.5], which apparently is volume 4 of Peter Stotz, Handbuch zur lateinischen Sprache des Mittelalters, C. H. Beck 1996. Does anyone here have access to this comprehensive (five volume) work on medieval Latin? – njuffa Aug 25 '23 at 05:16

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