I am translating this sentence from Lawrence of Brindisi:
"quod autem omni gratia plena fuerit Maria, Spiritus Sanctus, qui fons est totius gratiae, multis ostendit in Cantico Salominis. Primo cum ait..."
In context, it would make most sense for the first clause to mean "that Maria is full of grace" and not, as the subjunctive in classical Latin would suggest, "because." I have read that in later Latin the mood is used a bit more promiscuously. Is this the case?
The quod obviously introduces indirect speech, which is a decidedly non-classical phenomenon. (Classical Latin would be: Omni gratia autem plenam fuisse Mariam Spiritus Sanctus multis ostendit …) Lawrence of Brindisi may indeed have lived during the (late) Renaissance era, but apparently he wrote in an Ecclesiastical style here.
When quod introduces indirect speech, both the indicative and the subjunctive can be found, as discussed in this question. If indeed there be a trend that the subjunctive emphasizes a subjective character of the contents and the indicative would be more likely to be used where the author accepts the contents as fact, this example does not seem to follow that pattern.
