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1:6 εἰς ἔπαινον δόξης τῆς χάριτος αὐτοῦ ἧς ἐχαρίτωσεν ἡμᾶς ἐν τῷ ἠγαπημένῳ

unto the praise of the glory of His grace, in which He has engraced us to love.. Anything wrong with this translation?

ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory
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Your translation completely ignores the preposition ἐν. The Greek preposition ἐν is never, to my knowledge, used in a purpose statement.

“To love” (i.e., “in order to love” or “for the purpose of loving”) is a purpose statement which would have been written in Greek as the preposition εἰς followed by the definite article τὸ and the aorist active infinitive ἀγαπῆσαι: εἰς τὸ ἀγαπῆσαι.

«ἐν τῷ ἠγαπημένῳ» means “in the beloved” or “in [His] beloved [Son]”, referring to the Lord Jesus Christ (cf. 1:3: «Χριστῷ»). The prepositional phrase «ἐν ᾧ» (“in whom”) in the very next v. 7 — ᾧ being masculine gender — refers back to «ἐν τῷ ἠγαπημένῳ» in v. 6, «ἐν αὐτῷ» in v. 4, and «Χριστῷ» in v. 3. It is in the beloved Son that Christians are acceptable to the Father and have redemption and the forgivness of sins.

Der Übermensch
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The operative word in Eph 1:6 is Ἠγαπημένῳ which is a perfect participle (ie, verbal noun) middle or passive voice - dative masculine singular.

Translating Ἠγαπημένῳ is "to love" suggests it is an infinitive verb, which it is definitely not. Further, the fact that it is governed by an article, means that it must be translated as a noun; hence, "the beloved".

The other important word is ἐχαρίτωσεν = "he has freely given" (the OP's "engraced" means to freely give) means that the whole verse must be rendered (my translation):

to the praise of the glory of the grace of Him which He has freely given us in the Beloved.

Dottard
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  • Well as I look at its use, it is used as in the act of loving, also the word translated accepted, has the idea of to make gracious, this goes along with how he has chosen us to be holy... in love, which in tracing those words out they definitely have the meaning of practice. Now do you think that the translators had the idea of justification in Christ, over against having the meaning of sanctification, also are you putting to much expression on the art. could it be in the to love meaning the purpose of the gracing us is specifically to love, in the beloved seem like a erroneous translation. – ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory Jul 07 '23 at 03:07
  • Phil.1:9-11. this goes along with what was saying – ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory Jul 07 '23 at 03:39
  • @ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory - I have not translated it theologically - I have translated the text as it sits. I do not believe in translating according to one's preconceived theology. – Dottard Jul 07 '23 at 05:03
  • i just have one last question, and sorry if it seems like i may be repeating, but i just need some clarity. So is it possible that the engracinc in the love, could be the engracing us in the agape, which is the specific sacrificial love that manifests, that God energize us with in the inner man (Eph.3:16-21), that we be holy and with out blame before him in love? ( See Jude.1:24) – ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory Jul 08 '23 at 23:44
  • @ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory - the word Ἠγαπημένῳ is a form of the verb (a perfect participle) ἀγαπάω - agapao. However, again, it is acting like a noun and so must be translated as "the beloved". – Dottard Jul 08 '23 at 23:48
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    @ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory—Participles can function attributively, adverbally, or substantively (as a noun). With respect to τῷ ἠγαπημένῳ, it is evidently functioning as a substantive (a noun) because it is preceded by the definite article and there is neither an adjacent noun (thus it is not functioning attributively) nor an adjacent verb (this is not functioning adverbially). This is basic Greek grammar. – Der Übermensch Jul 09 '23 at 00:21