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I have been comparing and contrasting the two feedings of the multitudes. I’ve observed that the term “Apoluo” or “send away” is used 4 times between the two feedings.

  • Mark 6:36
  • Mark 6:45
  • Mark 8:3
  • Mark 8:9

As I understand this term, “Apoluo” means “to loose away” or “to free fully” but it carries the idea of being released from something obligatory.

My question then is what exactly are the multitudes being released from? Is it Christ Himself? or the feeding?

My mind leans towards the feeding itself, but I would like to understand what the grammar necessitates. I know nothing about Greek grammar so maybe someone can lay it out for me.

agarza
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solidhollow
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    The crowd is being dismissed. (Or, being 'dispossessed'.) Apoluo does not mean 'loose away'. It is a much broader concept. 'Dispossess' is closer to the broad usage of the word in the Greek language. It takes several pages to explain all the texts involved. See 'Redemption and Restoration' Belmont Publications for the precise details. PDF download is free of charge and free of any registration. – Nigel J Jun 29 '23 at 21:40
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    BTW, since you are a new contributor, welcome to the Group. Please take the Tour (menu at bottom left of the page) if you haven't done so yet. As for "what are they being released from"... the word can mean send away so no need for a "release" except in the sense that the crowd might feel an obligation to stay out of respect, so they are being released from their duty of attendance. – Dan Fefferman Jun 29 '23 at 22:11
  • Thank you for your reply. I am no student of Greek. I read in my Strong’s definitions that the word is compromised of “Apo” meaning “off” or “away”, and “Luo” meaning to “loosen”. I read further in some of the back and forth that it carries the idea of release from something as it would for example when when Barabbas was “released” from custody or in Mark 10 when it is translated “divorce”. If I am in error maybe you can help me understand. – solidhollow Jun 29 '23 at 22:29
  • I will clarify my intentions on the matter as well. I believe that the two feedings possess an allegorical meaning as well as the plain meaning. I ask in an attempt to understand the word usage better seeing it is a comparable item in both passages. – solidhollow Jun 29 '23 at 22:34
  • U should always quote the verses – Michael16 Jun 30 '23 at 02:56

1 Answers1

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BDAG lists six shades of meaning for the verb ἀπολύω (apoluó)

  1. to grant acquittal, set free, release, pardon, eg, Matt 27:15-26, Mark 15:6-15, Luke 23:16-25, etc
  2. to release from a painful condition, Luke 13:12
  3. to permit or cause someone to leave a particular location, let go, send away, dismiss, eg, Matt 14:15, 22, 15:23, 32, 39, Mark 6:36, 45, 8:3, 9, Acts 15:30, 33, 19:40, Luke 18:38, 14:4, 22:68, Heb 13:23, etc.
  4. to grant a request and so be rid of a person, satisfy, Matt 15:23
  5. to dissolve a marriage relationship, to divorce, Matt 1:19, 5:31, 19:3, 7-9, Mark 10:2, 4, 11, Luke 16:18, etc
  6. (middle voice) to make a departure from a locality, go away, Acts 28:25, Heb 13:23.

Thus, the simple answer to the OP's question is that in Mark 6 & 8, ἀπολύω (apoluó) simply means to leave the location and go home, ie, "dismiss the crowd" as many versions have it.

Dottard
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  • Thank you. So it can simply mean to depart a locality. I imagine then that it’s use would be determined by it’s context correct?

    Would you then suppose that it’s potential interpretation could possibly differ if the text in question possessed an allegorical usage as well?

     – solidhollow Jun 29 '23 at 22:48
  • @solidhollow - as best I can determine, the word is never used metaphorically nor allegorically. See the list of meanings from BDAG. However, if one wishes to make theological overtones from the story, that is a separate theological matter outside the scope of the question and this site. – Dottard Jun 29 '23 at 22:52
  • Sorry my curiosity is simply about interpretive potential.

    Let me ask this way: If any given text in scripture possessed a plain meaning alongside of an allegorical meaning (supposing that to have been the author intention) would ambiguous Greek terms have the potential to be interpreted distinctly from the context of the plain meaning as apposed to the context of the allegorical? Seeing as how an allegorical meaning is representative of something, it seems it would have potential to alter the qualities of what would govern the usage of the word.

     – solidhollow Jun 29 '23 at 23:18
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    @solidhollow - that is a curious hermeneutic to force two meanings onto a passage. The "problem" in Mark 6 & 8 is that they a rather simple historical narratives and not loaded with metaphoric overtones. Thus, the meaning (short of reading secondary meanings into everything as did Origen causing many problems) should be understood as the simple natural meaning - Jesus simply dismissed the crowd and sent them home. He did not want to be crowned as an earthly king. He was the king of heaven. – Dottard Jun 29 '23 at 23:22
  • @solidhollow - if one wished to force a "spiritual" meaning on the narrative, one might assert that, following Jesus giving the bread of life to the people, He sent them away to their homes to dispense the truth to others in parallel with Matt 28:19, 20. However, that becomes a very theological understanding that is not part of this site. – Dottard Jun 29 '23 at 23:36