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For John 4:22 I counted at least 15 responsible English translations that render the object in Jesus’s response impersonal: ie “what” or “which” “we worship”.

The simple Greek “ho” is as often rendered “who” as “what” based on the qualifiers in the whole string. I am not qualified to assess the translations in context as to why “what”. I would very much appreciate the input of you who are well educated in the disciplines.

The broader context here remains fascinating to me after many years. Elsewhere I want more input into “worship”, “Judeans” and the broader orb of Jacob’s descendants but these are complex matters needing careful parsing.

Richard7
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    This is a duplicate questions: https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/32335/what-did-jesus-mean-in-john-422-%E1%BD%91%CE%BC%CE%B5%E1%BF%96%CF%82-%CF%80%CF%81%CE%BF%CF%83%CE%BA%CF%85%CE%BD%CE%B5%E1%BF%96%CF%84%CE%B5-%E1%BD%83-%CE%BF%E1%BD%90%CE%BA-%CE%BF%E1%BC%B4%CE%B4%CE%B1%CF%84%CE%B5 The only difference is that question is asked in Greek. – Perry Webb Oct 08 '21 at 15:41

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New International Version John 4:22

You Samaritans worship what you do not know; we worship what we do know, for salvation is from the Jews.

what
ὃ (ho)
Personal / Relative Pronoun - Accusative Neuter Singular Strong's 3739: Who, which, what, that.

What is the case for “what” in Jesus’s comments Jn 4:22?

It's a neuter pronoun.