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[John 17:26 NIV] (26) I have made you known to them, and will continue to make you known in order that the love you have for me may be in them and that I myself may be in them."

What does "I myself" suggest?

Is it "in them" or "among them"?

If he is not in/among them, are they not yet believers?

Why is Jesus making this request at this time?

Ruminator
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2 Answers2

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The Greek of John 17:26 is:

καὶ ἐγνώρισα αὐτοῖς τὸ ὄνομά σου καὶ γνωρίσω, ἵνα ἡ ἀγάπη ἣν ἠγάπησάς με ἐν αὐτοῖς ᾖ κἀγὼ ἐν αὐτοῖς.

The NASB renders this quite well as:

and I have made Your name known to them, and will make it known, so that the love with which You loved Me may be in them, and I in them.

Note that "I myself" is absent - no reflexive pronoun is present. The concept of Christ being in us is very common in the NT. The same idea occurs in v21-23 is apparently idiom for being in unity with the other party (v22); or perhaps the lesser party being guided by the greater party.

The preposition ἐν (en) is variously translated "in" (Col 1:27) or "among" (eg, 1 Peter 5:2, Col 1:27). Here, Christ is the motivating force of the Christians who are described as having Christ among or in them. See 2 Cor 1:19 where the same preposition is used in both ways.

Here is my suggestion about what "Christ in us" means -

  • John 13:35 - By this everyone will know that you are my disciples, if you love one another. See also John 13:34, 15:12, 1 John 4:8, 11, 19, Eph 5:1, 2.
  • 2 Cor 5:14 - For the love of Christ controls us, because we have concluded this: that one has died for all, therefore all have died.
  • Acts 17:28 - For in him we live and move and have our being.
  • Col 1:27 - To them God has chosen to make known among the Gentiles the glorious riches of this mystery, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory.
  • Heb 12:2 - fixing our eyes on Jesus, the pioneer and perfecter of faith.
  • 1 Thess 1:6 - You became imitators of us and of the Lord, for you welcomed the message
  • Eph 5:1 - Therefore be imitators of God, as beloved children
  • 1 Cor 11:1 - Be imitators of me, as I am of Christ
  • 1 John 2:6 - Walk as Jesus walked
  • Rom 8:29 - we are conformed to the likeness of the Son.
  • 2 Peter 1:4 - we are partakers of the divine nature.
  • 2 Cor 3:18 - we are being changed into Christ's glory
  • Phil 2:5, 1 Cor 2:16 - we have the mind of Christ
  • Acts 11:26 - disciples called "Christians" (= "people like Christ") in Antioch

Ellicott comments on John 17:26:

and I in them.--Comp. Note on John 15:9. The thought of Christ's prayer in this verse is expanded in St. Paul's prayer in Ephesians 3:17-19. It is more than that God may love the disciples, even as He loved the Son; it is that they may so know the nature of God that this love may be in them, dwelling in them as the principle of their life. And then the thought passes on to that fulness which has been present all through this last discourse and prayer, "and I in them." (Comp. John 17:23.) Going from them, to be yet with them; not to be with them only as a Person without, but as a power within. "I in them" are the last words of the Intercessory Prayer. The words remain in all their comfort for them in whom "Christ is formed;" in all their encouragement for doubting hearts seeking to know God; in all their warning for hearts that do not seek His presence.

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    Pretty much all of the verses you cite are disqualified as answers to the question because they all related to "Christ-likeness" in behavior while the passage specifies "I myself". Ellicott's comments appear "phoned in", don't they? One passage you may want to look at is: [Gal 2:20 ASV] (20) I have been crucified with Christ; and it is no longer I that live, but Christ liveth in me: and that life which I now live in the flesh I live in faith, the faith which is in the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself up for me. – Ruminator Jun 27 '19 at 23:52
  • Gal 2:20 is a great addition to the list above. I am unsure what you mean by "phoned in". In any case "myself" is not in the Greek. It is simply, "kago" = "and I". –  Jun 28 '19 at 00:22
  • Do you understand my comment about "Christ-like behavior" versus "I myself"? It sounds like you may not have understood. If not please let me know and I'll explain it. If you don't agree, please provide an alternate understanding of "I myself". By "phoned in" I meant to say that it was uncompelling, like the phrases in a greeting card. – Ruminator Jun 28 '19 at 00:31
  • "myself" is a quirk of the NIV & ISV; all other versions I checked do not have this word. "myself" is not in the original Greek. –  Jun 28 '19 at 04:51
  • Well then perhaps you could make that case in your answer: John 17:26 καὶ ἐγνώρισα αὐτοῖς τὸ ὄνομά σου καὶ γνωρίσω ἵνα ἡ ἀγάπη ἣν ἠγάπησάς με ἐν αὐτοῖς ᾖ κἀγὼ ἐν αὐτοῖς And perhaps you could address "among them" versus "in them". – Ruminator Jun 28 '19 at 10:19
  • Col 1:27 on your list appears to also about Christ being in/among (the gentiles/Colossians), which seems very relevant. – Ruminator Jun 28 '19 at 10:35
  • Also relevant: [Jhn 17:21-23 ASV] (21) that they may all be one; even as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be in us: that the world may believe that thou didst send me. (22) And the glory which thou hast given me I have given unto them; that they may be one, even as we are one; (23) I in them, and thou in me, that they may be perfected into one; that the world may know that thou didst send me, and lovedst them, even as thou lovedst me. – Ruminator Jun 28 '19 at 11:07
  • I'm wondering if it might be an allusion to this: [Exo 29:43-46 CSB] (43) "I will also meet with the Israelites there, and that place will be consecrated by my glory. (44) "I will consecrate the tent of meeting and the altar; I will also consecrate Aaron and his sons to serve me as priests. (45) "I will dwell among* the Israelites and be their God. (46) "And they will know that I am the LORD their God, who brought them out of the land of Egypt, so that I might dwell among them. I am the LORD their God.* – Ruminator Jun 28 '19 at 11:49
  • Good point - I am sure there is an element of that but I would also understand it has a double meaning symbolised by the tabernacle (= among) to symbolise God being "in" them (their motivation) to be God's people who behave as such. –  Jun 28 '19 at 11:54
  • If there is an allusion to the sanctifying glory of the tabernacle and God's presence there then that connects nicely with this: [Jhn 1:14 YLT] (14) And the Word [IE: "utterance"] became flesh, and did tabernacle among us, and we beheld his glory, glory as of an only begotten of a father, full of grace and truth. That makes me wonder what "glory as of an only begotten of a father" means. Is that referring to a position of honor? – Ruminator Jun 28 '19 at 12:10
  • I opened a question on B-greek: https://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/viewtopic.php?p=32656&sid=43b215d2f173b0abf012647e5e95b259#p32656 – Ruminator Jun 28 '19 at 12:28
  • It seems John/Jesus wants to describe congruence (https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/congruence). Christ was congruent with the tabernacle when he was on earth but that the saints become congruent with the tabernacle when he ascends and then pours out on them God's sanctifying Shekina, the holy spirit. Do you lean toward "in" or "among"? – Ruminator Jun 28 '19 at 13:13
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"I myself" is a perfectly good translation of καγω (I too; I also) in this verse.

This is because more literally, it translates:

And I have made your Name known to them, and shall yet make it known, that the love with which you have loved me might be in them: that I too might be in them.

In any case, Jesus knows that where the Love with which the Father loves the Son is, He also is. It is my opinion that this Love is nothing other than the Holy Spirit, and such indeed is traditional to believe. But not without reason. Take, for example, this passage:

John 14:15-18 (DRB) If you love me, keep my commandments. 16 And I will ask the Father, and he shall give you another Paraclete, that he may abide with you for ever. 17 The spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, nor knoweth him: but you shall know him; because he shall abide with you, and shall be in you. 18 I will not leave you orphans, I will come to you.

Jesus dwells with us via the indwelling of the Holy Spirit, whom He gives, together with the Father, and this is how:

...my Father will love him, and we will come to him, and will make our abode with him.

John 14:23 (DRB)

"In" or "among," either way the doctrine is the same. Technically it's ambiguous, however, things like "will make our abode with him" etc. seem to suggest a personal indwelling of the individual, not just a congregational presence (cf. Mt. 18:20).

Personal indwelling does not necessarily follow the belief of the individual.

Acts 2:38 (DRB) But Peter said to them: [Repent], and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ, for the remission of your sins: and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

This is Jesus' last highpriestly prayer while yet free to make such, and so He wants to leave the provision of the Holy Ghost, so as not to 'leave them orphans.'

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Sola Gratia
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  • Are you saying that "as God lives within/among his people through the Messiah so the Messiah lives among God's people by indwelling spirit/breath"? This would tightly couple the sanctifying "glory" with the work of the spirit/breath? – Ruminator Jun 28 '19 at 12:25
  • I'm not sure quite what you mean. I mean that the Son and the Father both live in us via the indwelling of the Holy Ghost. And I would argue, He (the Holy Ghost) is the love of the Father and the Son personified, and not personified merely, but since in God there is only personal, not inanimate 'objects,' He is personal, and spoken of in this way in Scripture: "He shall," "He said," "He deems it fitting," "He would not allow," etc. – Sola Gratia Jun 28 '19 at 12:37
  • What I think you are saying is that Christ is praying that he might be living in/among the saints by the saints expressing the love of God for Christ by the spirit. Is that right? IE: that Christ dwelling in/among the saints is the result of their conformity to the operation of the spirit within/among them? – Ruminator Jun 28 '19 at 12:48
  • Not quite: that the way Christ and the Father live with us is by the Spirit. This is the primary mode of His union with us. However, conformity to the Spirit is union with Christ by extension, and vice versa. – Sola Gratia Jun 28 '19 at 12:54
  • So there is a metaphysical reality of indwelling which is by the spirit and a functional "Christ living in" the believer when the believers conform with the leading of the spirit which then "expresses" Christ? IE: Christ lives in the congregation by the spirit producing the same "God infused into man" living? – Ruminator Jun 28 '19 at 13:00
  • You are rephrasing what I've said beyond anything I can recognize, unfortunately. I don't claim to know how the Spirit dwelling in us works, but I know its effects, and that Christ dwells in us in those effects (by the Spirit who brings them about on His behalf, bearing witness to, and glorifying Christ, "Taking of what belongs to him"), or rather, those effects are called 'Christ' because they conform us to Christ, the perfect Son of God, and the perfect man, not that Jesus is literally sleeping inside of us, for example. – Sola Gratia Jun 28 '19 at 13:12
  • @Sola Gratia - while I fully agree with everything you have said about Christ's indwelling by the Holy Spirit, I am not sure that is the intent (or at least not entirely the intent) in John 17:26 because the reverse is also true. That is, not only is "Christ in us" but we are also "in Christ" (Eph 1:1, Phil 1:1, 2 Tim 1:1, Col 1:2, etc.) Now if Christ is in us by the Holy Spirit, we cannot be in Christ by our spirit. Therefore, I answered the way I did. –  Jun 29 '19 at 06:12
  • I didn't think of the converse: that we are in Christ. However, I do think that it is mean in the same sense as "in Adam" (the fallen and not yet redeemed), namely, "in Christ" means to have Christ as our father, the last Adam, as it were, 'instead' of the first man, Adam; you might say, "in Christ shall all thy seed be called." – Sola Gratia Jun 29 '19 at 21:25
  • @Ruminator Each person represents part of the Body of Christ (1 Corinthians 12). An old message taught through King David "you all are God' (Psalm 82:6). The defense Jesus gave after the statement, "I am in the Father and the Father in me" (John 10). Water works as the metaphor, the body contains water and if swimming, the body in the water and the water in the body. If the body leaves the pool, the water in the body and the body out of the water. This is why we should remain in God. We enter through the baptism of Spirit, and we should stay. – Decrypted Jul 03 '19 at 22:48
  • @Decrypted Did you mean to write, "You are gods?" – Sola Gratia Jul 04 '19 at 15:21
  • @SolaGratia Where is the verb in plural form? https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/8331/why-is-elohim-translated-as-god-rather-than-gods-in-genesis-11 – Decrypted Jul 04 '19 at 17:32
  • אלהים אתם (Ps. 82) means "you [pl] are gods," and it's in parallel with, "sons of the Most High, all of you." There is no verb when saying stuff like "you are x, y and z" in Hebrew, you just say, "you [sg./pl.] [thing you are]." Jesus confirms that it was plural: "If he calls them gods to whom the word of God came, etc." – Sola Gratia Jul 04 '19 at 21:54
  • Then I meant to write "You are gods". But did you get anything else from the earlier comment, or did you stop harvesting to pull the weed? – Decrypted Jul 05 '19 at 03:53
  • I recognized an error and thought to ask if it was a typo or not. There is a big difference betwee, "You are God [himself]" and "You are gods." – Sola Gratia Jul 05 '19 at 17:43