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For this reason, I have told you that no one can come to me unless my Father grants it to him. If this "is not granted" to me, is it my fault not getting to the Father.

*Thank you. Sorry I was not specific on which verse. This line 'For this reason...' popped out in mind as I was reading St Anselm and his student asked: Does the phrase from St Paul, ‘What do you have that you have not received?’ [1 Cor. 4: 7], apply only to men or to angels as well? (St. Anselm. Anselm of Canterbury: The Major Works (Oxford World's Classics) (p. 194). OUP Oxford. Kindle Edition.) and I got engaged with this site. I understand the line that popped up in my mind is far off the course from Anselm. I am happy with all your answers. Sorry for the trouble. Thank you. Blessings.

Luponero
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  • Please edit to indicate what version of the Bible you are using. You also need to make it clearer what you are asking. – enegue May 10 '19 at 22:50
  • The site examines scripture but you seem to be asking for comment about yourself, personally. Which would be off-topic. I suggest you re-phrase the question in such a way that you are asking about the wording of the text. Please see the Tour and the Help. – Nigel J May 10 '19 at 23:17
  • Nobody is required to 'get to the Father'. Jesus said 'he that cometh to me, I will in no wise cast out'. John 6:37. – Nigel J May 11 '19 at 00:43
  • @Luponero I would look up threads concerning predestination, such as those concerning Romans 8:29. Also commentaries for these verses provide great insight: https://biblehub.com/commentaries/romans/8-29.htm – GFFG May 11 '19 at 13:10
  • As a engineer and scientist who studies the Bible, cause and effect give us no ability to choose, nor does throwing dice. It is God who gives us this ability. – Perry Webb May 11 '19 at 13:45
  • @Luponero - welcome to BHSX. Please remember to take the tour below. You will need to re-word this question to make it clear what you are asking. Are you asking for an explanation of John 6:44?? –  May 11 '19 at 22:24
  • To clarify, your question is "Does the phrase from St Paul, [1 Cor. 4: 7], apply only to men or to angels as well?" If so, please edit your post and replace the "For this reason..." text with this actual question text at the top of your post. Your question is quite buried and difficult to discern, especially since the top line is so different. – Steve May 12 '19 at 03:39

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I believe you are quoting the NASB version of John 6:65:

And He was saying, “For this reason I have said to you, that no one can come to Me unless it has been granted him from the Father.”

This, in turn, refers back to Jesus' original statement earlier:

Therefore the Jews were grumbling about Him, because He said, “I am the bread that came down out of heaven.” They were saying, “Is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How does He now say, ‘I have come down out of heaven’?” Jesus answered and said to them, “Do not grumble among yourselves. “No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day" (John 6:41-44).

The phrasing is a little different in each of these verses. John 6:44 reads unless the Father who sent Me draws him (ἑλκύσῃ αὐτόν - elkusē auton), whereas 6:65 says unless it has been granted [to] him (δεδομένον αὐτῷ - dedomenon autō) from the Father.

Unless is perhaps not the best choice for translating ἐὰν μὴ here, though it might be the more literal option. In antiquity, these verses were not understood that there was some sort of exclusivity for those who were drawn as opposed to those who were not. Rather, it was understood to express a causal relationship: those who come to Christ, come by virtue of the Father having drawn all.

This sense is clear, for example, in the commentary of Cyril of Alexandria (378-444):

God the Father imparts the inextinguishable light of the true knowledge of the true vision of God to those who embrace the righteousness that is in Christ. He revealeth unto them the Son; as the Savior Himself also in another place said unto the Jews, Murmur not one with another; no man can come unto Me, except the Father Who sent Me draw him. But He draws, of course, by light and knowledge, and the cords of love. Yet for those who are not so disposed in will and wickedly reject Christs commandments, even that light which they had in their mind from the commandment of Moses, vanishes and is extinguished, and the darkness of ignorance usurps its place (Homily CXXXII on Luke).

user33515
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Read vs. 45-51 (Jn 6) to continue the explanation for what Jesus meant; and then read 2 Peter 3:9, Mt 7:7-8. That should answer your question.

GLW
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  • Welcome to the site! This would be a better answer for this site if you spelled out the verses, then explain why they answer the question -- instead of us trying to guess at what you meant. If you can, please add an authoritative source that backs your observation. – Steve May 12 '19 at 03:40