I have just discovered such a wonderful thing as determiners. I did a little digging and found out a lot about the stuff, but there is one thing that still confuses me.
Is "all the above" a valid phrase to use in a sentence? What I mean is — there is nothing stopping it from being correct, it seems, yet I have never heard it being used.
You could say it as "all the above things, all the above items, etc", however in this case the word "above" is simply an adjective.
What I am confused by is when "above" is used with the definite article "the" to form a noun. Same way as an old writer would use the definite article to use nouns like "the dark" or "the cursed". It's a noun, so there's nothing preventing it from being considered one when you use it in a sentence with the predeterminer "all".
And, as I am aware, when "all" is used as a predeterminer, there is no reason to think that omitting the "of" is incorrect (e.g. "All the people I know are like that" is the same as "All of the people I know are like that").
This brings me to my point: is "all the above" correct when it uses a noun? Is "Bearing all of the above in mind, ..." the same as "Bearing all the above in mind, ..."? It should be the same, but the second sentence definitely sounds off. Perhaps the phrase "all of the above" simply implies that there is a noun after it that is omitted and the "above" is merely an adjective, and I might just be overthinking it. I don't know.
EDIT: I find it quite expectable that I'm not 100% sure of the terminology I use — that's why I'm asking a question in the first place.
