If $X_1,X_2...X_N$ are independent Poisson variables with parameters $\lambda_1,\lambda_2...\lambda_3$, then given $\sum_iX_i=N$, we have that
$X_i \sim \mathrm{Binom}(N,\frac{\lambda_i}{\sum_j\lambda_j})$ (straight from wikipedia!)
I am looking for a proof of this -- I haven't really studied the relevant stats to know how to attack this problem. Any help would be great. Cheers!