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When calculating the sample variance we divide by $n-1$ instead of $n$ to correct the bias that results in from using the sample mean instead of the population mean.

My question is why do we only subtract 1 and not any other value? and why don't we divide by $n-2$ for example?

Thanks for your help.

  • Not directly the variance but the standard deviation. Interesting to read: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unbiased_estimation_of_standard_deviation – Ggjj11 Mar 07 '24 at 14:22

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