In my study, I experiment with fixed and mixed effects negative binomial regression to my data (in R) as the response variable is a count variable. I have read somewhere that unlike in the case of linear or logistic regression, we can not rely on R-squared in negative binomial regression to assess the proportion of variance explained by the model. Instead, it is suggested that we should use McFadden's pseudo R-squared or maximum likelihood R-squared, but their interpretation is not as straightforward as R-squared. However, in some studies I noticed using marginal or conditional R-squared with mixed effects negative binomial regression. My question: what is an optimum metric then and how to interpret it?
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kjetil b halvorsen
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dysko
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2Related $//$ The “proportion of variance explained” interpretation of $R^2$ breaks down on most cases. – Dave Feb 27 '24 at 14:53