I have a dataset with 200 individuals, 50 features and an outcome variable with 2 levels. The majority of features are not (statistically) significantly different (T-test, Kolmogorov-Smirnov test). I want to argue, however, that even though individual features lack differences, when considering all together there might exist a region in the hyperparameter space in which both groups are (clearly) separated.
I think this is fair to say and I'm looking at these questions for arguments:
Discriminatory model but no discriminatory features? (especially like the counterexample provided here by user Dave)
To finally cement this, I would love to include an academic reference, paper or book that discusses this or at least takes this into account. Does anything come to mind?