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If I have two risk ratios (calculated from Poisson regression) and 95% confidence intervals for each ratio, can I make the claim that the risk ratios are significantly different if there is no overlap between the confidence intervals?

Moreover, if I can make that claim, is there a citation that proves that that is a legitimate claim to make?

User81646
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  • I don't get what you mean by "two risk ratios". In Poisson regression, we model the expected value of counts on the basis of features. – utobi Feb 14 '24 at 09:26
  • Comparing two confidence intervals based on the visual overlap is never legitimate in any circumstance. – wzbillings Feb 14 '24 at 14:54

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