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I am trying to go through a proof of the problem that as the number of parameters grows in a model with $n$, the MLE may not be consistent. An example is the model $y_{ij}=\mu_i+\epsilon_{ij}$, where $\mu_i$ is the mean for individual $i \in (1,...,n)$ and $j\in (1,2)$, so each individual has two measurements $y_{i1}$ and $y_{i2}$. When an individual is added, another parameter $\mu$ therefore has to be estimated. The variance component for $\epsilon$ is distributed as $N(0,\sigma^2)$.

The MLE for $\mu_i$ is $\hat{\mu}_i=\frac{y_{i1}+y_{i2}}{2}$.

For $\sigma^2$, the MLE is $\hat{\sigma}^2=\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^{n} s_{i}^{2}$, where $\hat{s}_{i}^{2}=\frac{[(y_{i1}-\hat{\mu_i})^2+(y_{i2}-\hat{\mu_i})^2]}{2}$.

Since $\hat{\mu_i}=\frac{y_{i1}+y_{i2}}{2}$, $y_{i1}-\hat{\mu_i}$ and $y_{i2}-\hat{\mu_i}$ are $y_{i1}-\frac{y_{i1}+y_{i2}}{2}=\frac{y_{i1}-y_{i2}}{2}$ and $y_{i2}-\frac{y_{i1}+y_{i2}}{2}=\frac{y_{i2}-y_{i1}}{2}$. Replacing those in the formula for $\hat{s}_{i}^{2}$ gives $s_{i}^{2}=\frac{\big[\big(\frac{y_{i1}-y_{i2}}{2} \big)^2 + \big( \frac{y_{i2}-y_{i1}}{2} \big)^2 \big]}{2}$.

At this point it is concluded that $E[s_{i}^{2}]=\frac{\sigma^2}{2}$, and the MLE for $\sigma^2$ will also be $\frac{\sigma^2}{2}$. What I'm not understanding is how $E[s_{i}^{2}]=\frac{\sigma^2}{2}$ is obtained from $s_{i}^{2}=\frac{\big[\big(\frac{y_{i1}-y_{i2}}{2} \big)^2 + \big( \frac{y_{i2}-y_{i1}}{2} \big)^2 \big]}{2}$? I see in this answer that $Y_{i1}-Y_{i2}\stackrel{d}{=}N(0,2\sigma^2)$ but why is this and why does it imply the result $\frac{\sigma^2}{2}$?

As an aside, is it the case that this bias in the estimate of $\sigma^2$ is the reason for the use of REML in mixed effect models?

  • Can you simplify your expression for $s_i^2$? What might be a general result for $(a-b)^2 + (b-a)^2$? – AdamO Nov 11 '23 at 14:42
  • @AdamO $(a-b)^2 + (b-a)^2$ simplifies to $2a^2+2b^2-4ab$. If I'm correct then plugging in $a=y_{i1}/2$ and $b=y_{i2}/2$, $s_{i}^{2}$ simplifies to $\frac{y_{i1}^{2}+y_{i2}^{2}-y_{i1}y_{i2}}{2}$ – user352188 Nov 11 '23 at 15:56
  • Not quite. You have an expression for Z =Y1-Y2 as normal 0, 2 sigma. In that case S_i = 2(Z_i)^2/2 – AdamO Nov 11 '23 at 16:20
  • @AdamO I tried to clear it up in an answer. – user352188 Nov 11 '23 at 19:09

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My attempt at answering the question based on the discussion in the comments:

The expression $s_{i}^{2}=\frac{\big[\big(\frac{y_{i1}-y_{i2}}{2} \big)^2 + \big( \frac{y_{i2}-y_{i1}}{2} \big)^2 \big]}{2}$ can be simplified to $s_{i}^{2}=\frac{(y_{i1}-y_{i2})^2+(y_{i2}-y_{i1})^2}{8}$.

Since $Y_{i1}-Y_{i2}\stackrel{d}{=}N(0,2\sigma^2)$, we can let $Z=Y_{i1}-Y_{i2}$. In the numerator of the expression for $s_{i}^{2}$, we have the form $(a-b)^2 + (b-a)^2$ which is equivalent to $2(a-b)^2$. In this case, $a=y_{i1}$ and $b=y_{i2}$.

This gives us $s_{i}^{2}=\frac{2(y_{i1}-y_{i2})^2}{8}=\frac{(y_{i1}-y_{i2})^2}{4}$.

Since $Z=(y_{i1}-y_{i2})$, $E[s_{i}^{2}]=E[Z^2/4]=\frac{1}{4}E[Z^2]$.

$\frac{1}{4}E[Z^2]=\frac{\mu_{Z}^{2}+\sigma_{Z}^2}{4}=\frac{0^2+2\sigma^2}{4}$

$E[s_{i}^{2}]=\frac{\sigma^2}{2}$ and since $\hat{\sigma}^2=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n} s_{i}^{2}$, the MLE $\hat{\sigma}^2=\frac{\sigma^2}{2}$, which is biased regardless of $n$ and therefore not consistent.