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In statistics, it's pretty straightforward to write a formula for the joint probability distribution of two random Normal Variables:

\begin{align*} x_1 &\sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_1, \sigma_1^2) \\ x_2 &\sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_2, \sigma_2^2) \\ \begin{bmatrix} x_1 \\ x_2 \end{bmatrix} &\sim \mathcal{N}\left(\begin{bmatrix} \mu_1 \\ \mu_2 \end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix} \sigma_1^2 & \rho\sigma_1\sigma_2 \\ \rho\sigma_1\sigma_2 & \sigma_2^2 \end{bmatrix}\right) \end{align*}

Or here is another way to write this that shows this formula in terms of correlations: \begin{align*} x_1 &\sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_1, \sigma_1^2) \\ x_2 &\sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_2, \sigma_2^2) \\ \begin{bmatrix} x_1 \\ x_2 \end{bmatrix} &\sim \mathcal{N}\left(\begin{bmatrix} \mu_1 \\ \mu_2 \end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix} \sigma_1^2 & \sigma_{12} \\ \sigma_{12} & \sigma_2^2 \end{bmatrix}\right) \end{align*}

And here it is for a N variable case:

\begin{align*} x_1 &\sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_1, \sigma_1^2) \\ x_2 &\sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_2, \sigma_2^2) \\ &\vdots \\ x_n &\sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_n, \sigma_n^2) \\ \begin{bmatrix} x_1 \\ x_2 \\ \vdots \\ x_n \end{bmatrix} &\sim \mathcal{N}\left(\begin{bmatrix} \mu_1 \\ \mu_2 \\ \vdots \\ \mu_n \end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix} \sigma_1^2 & \sigma_{12} & \cdots & \sigma_{1n} \\ \sigma_{21} & \sigma_2^2 & \cdots & \sigma_{2n} \\ \vdots & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots \\ \sigma_{n1} & \sigma_{n2} & \cdots & \sigma_n^2 \end{bmatrix}\right) \end{align*}

I am trying to understand why no one ever does this for Non-Normal variables (after spending the weekend trying to read about this, I could not find a single example of this for the Non-Normal case).

For example, suppose I had many Exponential random variables (note that the variance of a exponential random variable $x_i$ ~ $exp(\lambda_i)$ is ${1}/{\lambda_i}$):

\begin{align*} X_1 &\sim \text{Exp}(\lambda_1) \\ X_2 &\sim \text{Exp}(\lambda_2) \\ &\vdots \\ X_n &\sim \text{Exp}(\lambda_n) \end{align*}

How come we can't write:

\begin{align*} X_1 &\sim \text{Exp}(\lambda_1) \\ X_2 &\sim \text{Exp}(\lambda_2) \\ &\vdots \\ X_n &\sim \text{Exp}(\lambda_n) \\ \begin{bmatrix} X_1 \\ X_2 \\ \vdots \\ X_n \end{bmatrix} &\sim \text{Exp}\left(\begin{bmatrix} \lambda_1 \\ \lambda_2 \\ \vdots \\ \lambda_n \end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix} \frac{1}{\lambda_1^2} & \sigma_{12} & \cdots & \sigma_{1n} \\ \sigma_{21} & \frac{1}{\lambda_2^2} & \cdots & \sigma_{2n} \\ \vdots & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots \\ \sigma_{n1} & \sigma_{n2} & \cdots & \frac{1}{\lambda_n^2} \end{bmatrix}\right) \end{align*}

Mathematically, why is this incorrect?

And this links shows us how to calculate the covariance of two exponential variables: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4101399/finding-covariance-from-exponential-distribution

How come we can do this for the Normal Distribution and not the Exponential Distribution? In my engineering final project, we need to simulate correlated failure times for machines that statistically depend on one another. I am just trying to understand the mathematical//statistical reason why this is so easy for a Multivariate Normal but not for a Multivariate Exponential.

Any hints?

stats_noob
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    look up elliptical distributions, e.g. symmetrical Laplace distribution. so, your statement that only Gaussian multivariate looks simple (in a very specific sense) is incorrect, all ellipticals are as simple in the same sense. – Aksakal Nov 06 '23 at 02:34
  • Aksakal, why are elliptical distributions simple to write multivariate? I just cant understand this ... why is it incorrect to make a multivariate exponential distribution in the way that I made? I know this is not correct... but I am unable to understand why this is incorrect....can you help me shed light on this? – stats_noob Nov 06 '23 at 02:42
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    what you're asking is similar to asking why doesn't everything look like a ball? a ball is a simple object. wouldn't it be great if all objects were as simple as a ball? think of an elliptical distribution as a sphere. well, not everything is a sphere, that's just how life is – Aksakal Nov 06 '23 at 02:46
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    ok, lets go with your example about balls. suppose I take a slice of bread, squish it in my hands, and I can roll it into the shape of a ball. Now, I take a handful of sugar, squish it in my hands...and I look at it, but its not in the shape of a ball. Why? because sugar does not stick together due to its underlying lattice networks. So this is the explanation : the reason why bread can be squashed into a ball but sugar can not is because of their respective molecular structure. Using this form of logic, can you please explain why you cant make a multivariate exponential like the way i did? – stats_noob Nov 06 '23 at 02:50
  • what mathematical/statistical properties are preventing me from writing the multivariate exponential distribution the way I have written? can you please explain this? thank you – stats_noob Nov 06 '23 at 02:50
  • For example, maybe if I take the (incorrect) joint exponential distribution I wrote and try to marginalize out the individual distributions for the individual variables .... the resulting marginals wont be exponential? if this is true, is this sufficient reason to reject my initial claim? – stats_noob Nov 06 '23 at 02:53
  • you may construct a joint distribution from exponential marginals and Gaussian copula, then the math will work out and the structure will be spherical in some sense – Aksakal Nov 06 '23 at 03:04
  • but why is it wrong to take the exponential marginals and "glue" them together in this brute way that I have done? can you please point out to me why the way I have done is incorrect? – stats_noob Nov 06 '23 at 03:09
  • Check copula as the key(word) to your question. – Xi'an Nov 06 '23 at 07:37
  • It is always difficult and problematic to answer any question that relies fundamentally on incorrect premises. My post at https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/554738/919 is a detailed counterexample to your assertion "no one ever." https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/564628/919 explains generally what is (and is not) special about the family of multivariate Normal distributions in this regard. – whuber Nov 06 '23 at 14:49

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The key problem is that you have not given enough information to specify the joint distribution. With a Normal distribution, the mean vector and covariance matrix specifies the joint distribution. That's also true for an elliptical distribution. It's not true for exponential distributions. Given your mean vector $\lambda$ and your covariance matrix, there might be no multivariate distribution with exponential margins and the specified covariance matrix, or there might be uncountably many different ones. A related issue is that there's no clear way to simulate from this distribution.

When people make up new parametric distribution families (which they do all the time), the distributions are usually specified as one or more of:

  • a multivariate density function (eg, the multivariate Normal)
  • a recipe for generating the variable from simpler components (eg, "take a multivariate normal and divide by a square root of the covariance matrix)
  • some provably unique mathematical characterisation (eg Chernoff's distribution, which is the location of the minimum of a Brownian motion with quadratic drift)

These specifications allow you to do things with the distribution.

There are occasions where you write down just part of a joint distribution and say "don't care" about the rest. For example, the idea behind GEE modelling of longitudinal data was to specify that the marginal distributions followed a generalised linear model and just punt on the rest of the specification. This gives a well-defined semiparametric model. Your "exponential margins" model is also a well-defined semiparametric model; it's not clear whether it's a useful one or not.

Thomas Lumley
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  • Thanks Thomas. I understand your point about it being difficult to simulate points from non-normal distributions, in my previous question I was told that Copula models are useful for this. – stats_noob Nov 06 '23 at 04:12
  • But I don't understand the main point. Is it possible to show a statistical proof which contradicts what I have written? – stats_noob Nov 06 '23 at 04:14
  • "Given your mean vector λ and your covariance matrix, there might be no multivariate distribution with exponential margins and the specified covariance matrix, or there might be uncountably many different ones." (I am playing devils advocate here) But I just wrote a multivariate exponential distribution ... I think I just realized the answer: maybe if I can show that this incorrect multivariate exponential distribution that I pasted together DOES NOT INTEGRATE to 1 ... this is a sufficient proof to show why I am incorrect? – stats_noob Nov 06 '23 at 04:17
  • That's one possibility. Or, showing that there is more than one distribution with exponential margins and the same means and variances would also do it. – Thomas Lumley Nov 06 '23 at 21:46
  • I figured out the obvious answer to this question .... too bad its closed, I would have written the answer myself – stats_noob Nov 07 '23 at 04:40