Given the estimator for $\hat{\beta}_1$ in the Frisch-Waugh-Lovell Theorem:
$$\hat{\beta}_1 = \left(X_1^\prime{} M_2 X_1\right)^{-1} X_1' M_2 y$$
I can arbitrarily use either the $y$ in the auxiliary regression or the residual of a regression of $y$ on $X_2$.
This can be seen from (just using the fact that $M_2$ is symmetric and idempotent):
(1) $$\hat{\beta}_1 = \left(X_1^\prime{} M_2^\prime{} M_2 X_1\right)^{-1} X_1' M_2' y$$
which is equal to:
$$\hat{\beta}_1 = \left(\tilde{X}^\prime{} \tilde{X}\right)^{-1} \tilde{X}^\prime{} y$$
where $\tilde{X}$ is the first stage, regressing $X_1$ on $X_2$ and using the residuals for the second stage.
And equally:
(2) $$\hat{\beta}_1= \left(X_1^\prime{} M_2^\prime{} M_2 X_1\right)^{-1} X_1^\prime{} M_2^\prime{} M_2 y$$
which is equal to:
$$\hat\beta_1 = \left(\tilde{X}^\prime{} \tilde{X}\right)^{-1} \tilde{X}^\prime{} \tilde{Y}$$
where $\tilde{X}$ is the first stage, regressing $X_1$ on $X_2$ and using the residuals for the second stage. But now in the second stage we use the residuals of $y$ on $X_2$.
So far so good. Now the theorem states, that if we are using (2) we get residuals that are identical to the residuals in the unpartitioned regression. Whereas when we are using (1) we get different residuals. How do we prove that?