I was reading this answer, where it is explained that the externally studentized residual $$t_i = \frac{e_i}{\hat\sigma_{(i)}\sqrt{1 - h_i}} = \frac{\frac{e_i}{\sigma\sqrt{1 - h_i}}}{\sqrt{\frac{e_{(i)}^Te_{(i)}}{\sigma^2(n-p-1)}}}$$ follows a t-distribution with $(n-1-p)$ degrees of freedom.
I understand why $$\frac{e_i}{\sigma\sqrt{1 - h_i}} \sim \mathcal N(0,1).$$ and $$\frac{{\hat\sigma_{(i)}}}{\sigma^2}=\sqrt{\frac{e_{(i)}^Te_{(i)}}{\sigma^2(n-p-1)}} \sim \sqrt{\chi^2_{n-p-1} / (n-p-1)}$$
but i don't get why $e_i$ and ${\hat\sigma_{(i)}}$ are independent.
I mean, $e_i=((I_n-H)y)_i$ is a function of $y_1,y_2,\cdots,y_{i-1},y_{i},y_{i+1},\cdots ,y_n$
while ${\hat\sigma_{(i)}}$ is a function of $y_1,y_2,\cdots,y_{i-1},y_{i+1},\cdots ,y_n$.
So at first glance they seem pretty dependent.
But, according to the linked answer, since observation $i$ does not appear in ${\hat\sigma_{(i)}}$, we have that $e_i$ and ${\hat\sigma_{(i)}}$ are independent. I do not understand this statement.
So, why are $e_i$ and ${\hat\sigma_{(i)}}$ independent?