According to the article here, we have two disjoint distributions as shown below.
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KL divergence for the distributions are
I don't understand why denominators are 0 for both.
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batuman
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See the answer at https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/362860/kl-divergence-between-which-distributions-could-be-infinity – kjetil b halvorsen Jun 25 '23 at 19:15