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what's the correct way to quantify the loss of information we have when we approximate the likelihood from multivariate normal distribution with a full covariance matrix to a product of univariate Gaussian pdf ? I am doing some Bayesian inference and i am comparing the results i get when i use the multivariate distribution with the one i get when i assume the data points independents. The results are very similar but i would like to know if there is some procedure that can justify this approximation.

i have read i can use the Kullback-Leibler divergence

like in KL divergence between two multivariate Gaussians

$$ \begin{aligned} KL &= \int \left[ \frac{1}{2} \log\frac{|\Sigma_2|}{|\Sigma_1|} - \frac{1}{2} (x-\mu_1)^T\Sigma_1^{-1}(x-\mu_1) + \frac{1}{2} (x-\mu_2)^T\Sigma_2^{-1}(x-\mu_2) \right] \times p(x) dx \\ &= \frac{1}{2} \log\frac{|\Sigma_2|}{|\Sigma_1|} - \frac{1}{2} \text{tr}\ \left\{E[(x - \mu_1)(x - \mu_1)^T] \ \Sigma_1^{-1} \right\} + \frac{1}{2} E[(x - \mu_2)^T \Sigma_2^{-1} (x - \mu_2)] \\ &= \frac{1}{2} \log\frac{|\Sigma_2|}{|\Sigma_1|} - \frac{1}{2} \text{tr}\ \{I_d \} + \frac{1}{2} (\mu_1 - \mu_2)^T \Sigma_2^{-1} (\mu_1 - \mu_2) + \frac{1}{2} \text{tr} \{ \Sigma_2^{-1} \Sigma_1 \} \\ &= \frac{1}{2}\left[\log\frac{|\Sigma_2|}{|\Sigma_1|} - d + \text{tr} \{ \Sigma_2^{-1}\Sigma_1 \} + (\mu_2 - \mu_1)^T \Sigma_2^{-1}(\mu_2 - \mu_1)\right]. \end{aligned} $$

is it correct if i reduce this solution for 2 multivariate Gaussian in the solution i want by considering $\Sigma_2$ as a diagonal matrix ?

Xi'an
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Alucard
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    Could you please explain what you mean by "product of gaussian distributions"? What kind of gaussian (univariate, multivariate) and what kind of product (Cartesian; product of densities; product of CDFS; product of random variables)? – whuber May 14 '23 at 14:11
  • product of univariate gaussian pdf – Alucard May 14 '23 at 14:20
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    Okay. But since that is explicitly answered in the thread you reference, please tell us what specifically you need help with. In particular, you need to explain what $\Sigma_1$ and $\Sigma_2$ represent. – whuber May 14 '23 at 15:35
  • @whuber no it isn't written there, i read it on chatgpt. in that thread there is only the formula to calculate the kl divergence between 2 multivariate. Since the ia is not reliable i wanted to be sure that the computation of the kl divergence is the correct procedure to adopt to justify the approximation, because from google i did not find any example – Alucard May 14 '23 at 16:41
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    One could interpret "product of univariate Gaussian pdf" as a multivariate Gaussian with a diagonal covariance matrix, in which case you are in the exact situation referenced in the thread. – jbowman May 14 '23 at 17:00

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