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Let $x_0,x_1,...x_n$ be iid (independenta and identically distributed) random variables. Then, $m_0,m_1,...m_n$ be defined as $c-x_0,c-x_1,....c-x_n$, where c is a constant greater than $x_i$ ($i \in \{0,1,..n\} $). The question is that the $m_0,m_1,...m_n$ is also iid?

Cathy
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    Yes, functions of independent r.v.s are also independent, and since all r.v.s are transformed the same way, they will also still share the same distribution after the transformation. – Christoph Hanck Dec 09 '22 at 12:26
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    See https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/251716/functions-of-independent-random-variables-are-independent, https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/94872/functions-of-independent-random-variables, – kjetil b halvorsen Dec 09 '22 at 14:11

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