I wanted to know what is the difference between running a multinomial logit regression and a logit regression on a model in which the dependent variable is a dummy with just two levels.
My database looks like this
Firm Event Year Info Dummy14 Dummy15 Dummy16
1 0 2014 x 1 0 0
1 0 2015 x 0 1 0
1 1 2016 x 0 0 1
2 0 2014 x 1 0 0
2 1 2015 x 0 1 0
3 0 2014 x 1 0 0
3 0 2015 x 0 1 0
3 0 2016 x 0 0 1
4 1 2014 x 1 0 0
Basically, I have analysed some firms for the years 2014-2016, eliminating them if an event happens. I have also added some dummies (equal to 1 if we are in a specific year) to implement a year fixed effects model.
The logistic regression is the following:
Event ~ Info + Dummy14 + Dummy15 + Dummy16
(I want to check if the info in the year previous to the event are different from the other years)
I want to understand the coefficients of the dummies.
If Dummy16 is equal to +20, does it mean that the event is more likely to happen in 2016? Is it a percentage?
I don't understand the fact that it can be equal to a high number, since both the dependent variable and the dummies can only be equal to 0 and 1.
Side note: I don't know if it is relevant, but I invented the coefficient of Dummy16, and, maybe, in this simplified case it can't be equal to +20.
So, for the sake of clarity, I will specify that, in my actual database, I have 9 dummies for the years from 2013 to 2021 and the actual coefficients are:
Dummy13 = +13
Dummy14 = +23
Dummy15 = +13
Dummy16 = +6
Dummy17 = +0.6
Dummy18 = -25.4
Dummy19 = -51
Dummy20 = -65.8
Dummy21 = -23