There are many questions and answers on why $n-1$ is used instead of $n$ in sample vs population variance.
However, I wonder why the population variance definition even has $n$ in the first place. The definition is given as
$$\sigma^2 = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n(x_i - \mu)^2}{n}.$$
What is the intuitive purpose of the $n$? Is it just a normalizing term? If so, why was a different normalizing term not chosen?