Hi Stack Exchangers,
Reaching out for clarification on two different ways to derive B0 for a best fit line using OLS. Are they related?
- From MIT Notes, B1 is defined as the minimum sum of squared residuals (sum of X and Y from their respective means as a ratio to the spread of X from the mean_
- From Khan Academy, B1 is defined as the R-weighted ratio of Sx and Sy
My hunch is saying that Khan's formula is only appropriate for pairs data (single X variable), while the MIT formula applies to multiple X variables.
Any clarification on the relationship or difference between these two formulas appreciated.
Thank you in advance, Lenn
MIT Reference

