Supposing that there is a binomial distribution ${\rm Bin}(m|N, \mu)$, I think usually $N$ and $\mu$ are parameters and not random variables (or events), thus the notation here ${\rm Bin}(m|N, \mu)$ seems somewhat misleading. Here, the binomial distribution ${\rm Bin}(m|N, \mu)$ is \begin{align*} {\rm Bin}(m|N, \mu) = \begin{pmatrix} N \\ m\end{pmatrix} \mu^m (1 - \mu)^{N-m} \end{align*} in the PRML notation.
My Question: However, is this notation really misleading? If not, what is the definition of $p(N)$ here?
If we would like to consider the Bayesian inference, we often introduce a beta distributions ${\rm Beta}(\mu | a, b)$ as the conjugate prior distribution of the parameter $\mu$.
Then, the PRML eq. (2.17) says that the posterior distribution of $p$ is given by
\begin{align*} p(\mu|m, N, a, b) \propto {\rm Bin}(m|N, \mu) {\rm Beta}(\mu | a, b) \end{align*}
via the Bayes' theorem and I would like to show it explicitly. The $\propto$ means that if we ignore all factors independent of $\mu$ we obtain this expression.
To show this, at first I assumed $m$ and $a, b$ are conditionally independent given $\mu$ and $N$.Thus \begin{align*} p(m|N, \mu) = p(m|N, \mu, a, b) &= \frac{p(m, N, \mu, a, b)}{p(N, \mu, a, b)} = \frac{p(m, N|\mu, a, b) p(\mu | a, b) p(a, b)}{p(N|\mu) p(\mu | a, b)} \\ &= \frac{p(m, N|\mu, a, b)p(a, b)}{p(N|\mu)}. \end{align*} Then we get \begin{align*} p(m|N, \mu) p(\mu | a, b) &= \frac{p(m, N|\mu, a, b)p(a, b)}{p(N | \mu)} \frac{p(\mu, a, b)}{p(a, b)} \\ &= \frac{p(\mu, m, N, a, b)}{p(N|\mu)}\\ &= \frac{p(\mu|m, N, a, b)p(m, N, a, b)}{p(N|\mu)}. \end{align*} Obviously, the factor $p(N|\mu)^{-1}$ appears and contradicts the above statement.
Therefore I believe that $N$ (and hyperparameters $a, b$) are parameters, not random variables and thus we don't have to consider probabilities like $p(N)$ or $p(N|\mu)$.
Am I right in my thinking? If so, it would be even more appreciated if you could show the correct normalized expression with parameters separated.