I have two distinct probability density functions, and I would like to find a synthetic measure of how different the two distributions are. Intuitively, it would make sense to me to compute the area between the two curves, as in the example shown below
Source: How to visualise the difference between probability distribution functions?
The metric would range between 0 (perfect overlapping) and 2 (no overlapping), and would be computed as the integral of the absolute value of the difference between the two PDFs. However, after searching the internet for a similar metric, I wasn't able to find any. What is the downside of such an apparently simple metric? Am I getting something wrong?
Edit: Image is for visualization purposes only. It is not mine and I am not trying to compare two samples (rather, two known PDFs).
A reference to a similar metric is made in this paper, see equation 2, but other than this I can't find anything close to it. Something close to what I mean, albeit for discrete distributions, is the dissimilarity index.
Does my proposed metric not make sense? I am asking this question because it seems one of the most intuitive ways to gauge the difference between two PDFs, yet I can find virtually no reference to it on the web.