Given a joint probability density distribution $P(\boldsymbol{\alpha})$ with $\boldsymbol{\alpha}=(\alpha_1,\alpha_2,\alpha_3)$ a variable in $\mathbb{R}^{3}$, such that all marginals $P_i$ are Dirac-delta functions i.e. : \begin{align} P_{1}(\alpha_{1})&=\int d\alpha_{2}\int d\alpha_{3}P(\boldsymbol{\alpha})=\delta(\alpha_{1}-\gamma_{1}),\\ P_{2}(\alpha_{2})&=\int d\alpha_{1}\int d\alpha_{3}P(\boldsymbol{\alpha})=\delta(\alpha_{2}-\gamma_{2}),\\ P_{3}(\alpha_{3})&=\int d\alpha_{1}\int d\alpha_{2}P(\boldsymbol{\alpha})=\delta(\alpha_{3}-\gamma_{3}), \end{align} is it possible to prove that the only joint distribution is \begin{equation} P(\boldsymbol{\alpha})=P_{1}(\alpha_{1})P_{2}(\alpha_{2})P_{3}(\alpha_{3})\,\,? \end{equation} In general, I do expect that knowing just the marginals is not enough to uniquely determine the joint probability distribution. However, given that Dirac-deltas are a very special case, it feels more reasonable that the only possible joint distribution is the product of the three.
If working with continuous distribution creates problems, it would be very helpful also an analogue proof using discrete variables. Also references are very welcome.
Thanks in advance to everyone for the help!