Suppose I have a survival data with the variables time: follow up time, event: event indicator(1 or 0) with 1 as an event and 0 as censored, treatment: treatment group (0 or 1) and covariates X1, X2, X3 AND X4.
First, I fit a logistic regression model to obtain the propensity scores. The outcome of logistic regression model is treament and X1, X2, X3 AND X4 are the predictors and obtain the propensity scores ps for each observations. Then, using inverse probability weighting, the weights wt are obtained as
treatment/ps + (1-treatment)/(1-ps).
Now, I want to fit a Cox proportional hazards regression model with these weights as follows:
model1 <- coxph(Surv(time,event) ~ treatment + X1 + X2 + X3 + X4, weights=wt).
Is model1 same as $\lambda(t|treatment,X_1,X_2,X_3,X_4)=wt*\lambda_0(t)* e^{\gamma *treatment+\beta_1*X_1+\beta_2*X_2+\beta_3*X_3+\beta_4*X_4}$ where $\lambda_0(t)$ is the baseline hazard function? What is the interpretation of adding these weights? Am I fitting weighted Cox proportional hazards regression model?