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I want to clarify a point that disturbs me among different cases.

I am interested in formulate correctly in a general case when we know the distribution of different random variables and we want to calculate the distribution of the sum of these random variables.

For example, the distribution of 2 random variables following a different uniform distribution is not the sum of the 2 distributions, we are ok ? (by the way, how to compute the distribution of this sum ?).

On another side, when we take 2 random variables following a different normal distribution, the PDF of the sum of both is a PDF which is the sum of 2 Gaussians ? I think that it would logical but I am not sure (regarding my first example above), especially for the normalization of the PDF of sum which has to be equal to 1 when integrate over all the domain.

Now, in my case, I have to compute the distribution of the following quantity :

$$\sum_{\ell=\ell_{\min }}^{\ell_{\max }} \sum_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} a_{\ell m}^{2}$$

with the random variable $a_{\ell m}$ following a normal centered on 0 and with a variance equal to $C_{\ell}$.

So, I decided to begin firstly by the quantity $\sum_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} a_{\ell m}^{2}$ from a distribution point of view :

We recall the properties of a few basic distributions.

  1. $\mathcal{N}(0, C_{\ell})^2$ distribution is equivalent to $C_{\ell}\,\chi^2(1)=\Gamma(\frac{1}{2}, 2C_{\ell})$ distribution.
  2. The distribution $\sum_{i=1}^N\Gamma(k_i, \theta)$ is equivalent to a $\Gamma (\sum_{i=1}^N k_i, \theta)$ distribution for independent summands.

Let us formulate the distribution followed by this random variable. Using previous points 1 and 2, we obtain : $$ \begin{align} \sum_{m=-\ell}^\ell (a_{\ell m})^2&= \sum_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} C_{\ell} \cdot\left(\frac{a_{\ell, m}}{\sqrt{C_{\ell}}}\right)^{2} \label{sum_alm} \end{align} $$

We can develop the distribution of this observable like this :

  1. $a_{\ell m}$ follows a $\mathcal{N}(0, C_{\ell})$ distribution.
  2. $\sum_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} C_{\ell} \cdot\left(\dfrac{a_{\ell, m}}{\sqrt{C_{\ell}}}\right)^{2}$ follows a $\sum_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} C_{\ell} \, \mathrm{\chi^2}(1)$ distribution.
  3. $\sum_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} C_{\ell}\,\mathrm{\chi^2}(1)$ distribution is equivalent to a $C_{\ell}\,\sum_{m=-\ell}^{\ell}\, \mathrm{\chi^2(1)}$ distribution.
  4. $C_{\ell} \sum_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} \mathrm{\chi^2}(1)$ is equivalent to a $C_{\ell} \,\mathrm{\chi^2}(2\ell+1)$ distribution.
  5. $C_{\ell}\,\mathrm{\chi^2}(2 \ell+1)$ distribution is equivalent to $C_{\ell}\,\mathrm{Gamma}((2\ell+1)/2, 2)$ distribution.
  6. $C_{\ell}\,\mathrm{Gamma}((2\ell+1)/2, 2)$ is equivalent to a $\mathrm{Gamma}((2\ell+1)/2, 2C_\ell)$ distribution.

We have taken the convention (shape,scale) parameters for $\mathrm{Gamma}$ distribution. Given the fact that we consider the random variable :

$$ \begin{equation} \sum\limits_{\ell=\ell_{min}}^{\ell_{max}}\sum\limits_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} a_{\ell m}^2 \end{equation} $$

This sum of random variables $\sum\limits_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} a_{\ell m}^2$ follows a Moschopoulos distribution : it represents the distribution of the sum of random variables each one following a $Gamma$ distribution with different shape and scale parameters.

Is this reasoning correct ? I mean, about the sum of random variables $\sum\limits_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} a_{\ell m}^2$ which follows a Moschopoulos distribution ?

Indeed, if it is correct, the random variables $\sum\limits_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} a_{\ell m}^2$ follow a $\text{Gamma}$ distribution with different shape and scale parameters.

As conclusion, my main questions :

1) Is my reasoning above correct ? I mean does the random variable $\sum_{\ell=\ell_{\min }}^{\ell_{\max }} \sum_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} a_{\ell m}^{2}$ follows a Moschopoulos distribution ?

2) How to express correctly the things when I want to say for example, the distribution of sum of random variable "$X_i$" is equivalent to a "given" distribution or the sum of random variables "$X_i$" follows a "given" distribution ?

3) How to demonstrate that the convolution operation preserve the area of convolution to be equal to 1 when we integrate from all the domain ?

I make confusions between "equality from a distribution point of view", "the following distribution of a random variable" and the "sum of PDF".

Hoping have been enough clear.

  • You obviously cannot get the pdf of a sum by summing pdfs, because the sum of two pdfs will integrate to 2, not 1, and hence cannot be a pdf. If the random variables are independent, the pdf of their sum is the convolution of their pdfs. The case resulting in the convolution of two different uniforms is discussed on site already, you might try some searches. – Glen_b Nov 05 '21 at 03:03
  • @Glen_b . I tried to look at some basic examples of "convolution of PDF". By the way, why one tells "convolution" : is it about the characteristic function (Fourier transform of PDF) ? If you could give me a simple example, I would be grateful. But surely I will launch a bounty to draw more attention on this not so much simple isssue. This may help other persons I think for a general approach. Regards –  Nov 05 '21 at 17:02
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    This is standard stuff; it should be in any undergrad stats text that's designed for students with enough basic mathematics to do the calculations; I'd start there (eg Larsen&Marx). The density of a sum in the general case is computed via integration from the joint pdf. With independent variables that simplifies to a convolution; see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convolution_of_probability_distributions#Introduction starting from "If we start with random variables X and Y" to the end of that subsection, which does that exact simplification from the general case to the independent case. – Glen_b Nov 05 '21 at 23:37
  • @Glen_b . Ok thanks. Just a detail (though important) : Does the convolution operation preserve the area of convolution to be equal to 1 when we integrate from all the domain ? Regards –  Nov 06 '21 at 08:29
  • Yes, the area of the result is as it should be. – Glen_b Nov 06 '21 at 12:21
  • @Glen_b . Thanks. Is it always gauranteed for sum of any random variables following any PDF. How to demonstrate it please ? Regards –  Nov 06 '21 at 12:26
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    Your questions about convolution are addressed at https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/331973, inter alia. – whuber Nov 06 '21 at 19:44

1 Answers1

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1) Is my reasoning above correct ? I mean does the random variable $\sum_{\ell=\ell_{\min }}^{\ell_{\max }} \sum_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} a_{\ell m}^{2}$ follows a Moschopoulos distribution ?

The reasoning is correct. You have a sum of variables $a_{\ell m}^2$ that are gamma distributed. That matches the description for the Moschopoulos distribution.

See also this question Generic sum of Gamma random variables

2) How to express correctly the things when I want to say for example, the distribution of sum of random variable "$X_i$" is equivalent to a "given" distribution or the sum of random variables "$X_i$" follows a "given" distribution ?

For example: "The distribution of the sum $ \sum\limits_{\ell=\ell_{min}}^{\ell_{max}}\sum\limits_{m=-\ell}^{\ell} a_{\ell m}^2$ follows a Moschopoulos distribution."

3) How to demonstrate that the convolution operation preserve the area of convolution to be equal to 1 when we integrate from all the domain ?

This is a property of convolution. If the convolution is

$$h(x) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(y)g(x-y)dy$$

Then the integral of $h(x)$ is

$$ \int_{-\infty}^\infty h(x) dx = \left( \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)dx \right) \cdot \left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty g(x)dx\right) = 1 \cdot 1 = 1$$

Which follows from Fubini's theorem which states that you can change the order of integration

$$ \begin{array}{} \int_{-\infty}^\infty h(x) dx & =& \int_{-\infty}^\infty \left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(y)g(x-y)dy\right)dx\\ &=& \int_{-\infty}^\infty \left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(y)g(x-y)dx\right)dy \\&=& \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(y)\underbrace{ \left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty g(x-y)dx\right)}_{=1}dy \\ &=& \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(y) dy \\ &=& 1 \end{array}$$

  • Thanks for your answer. Just a detail, inner integral $\int_{-\infty}^\infty g(x-y)dx$ is always true ? Indeed, this is equivalent to a "shifted" PDF since the presence of $(x-y)$ but if we have a finite interval (for example $[a,b]$),

    doesn't it create an issue from a mathematical point of view ?

    Surely by taking $z=x-y$, we have $dz=dx$ and so : $\int_{-\infty}^\infty g(x-y)dx=\int_{-\infty}^\infty g(z)dz=1$ :

    do you agree with this little demo ?

    –  Nov 07 '21 at 04:38
  • @youpilat13 you are right that it will be different for a finite interval. But in that case the convolution won't be nicely defined either. – Sextus Empiricus Nov 07 '21 at 07:08