We know that a random variable $p=(p_{1}, p_{2},..., p_{K})$ which follows a $\textit{Dirichlet}$ distribution with parameters $\textbf{a} = (a_{1}, a_{2},..., a_{K})$ has as pdf
$$f(p) = \frac{1}{B(\textbf{a})}\prod_{i=1}^{K}p_{i}^{a_{i}-1}$$
On https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dirichlet_distribution there is no CDF expression for the $\textit{Dirichlet}$ distribution and here https://www.researchgate.net/post/What-is-the-CDF-of-Dirichlet-Distribution, they note that the expression of CDF is really complicated and they redirect you to Implementation of Dirichlet cdf? where they recommend using $\textit{Monte Carlo}$ approximation for the CDF.
Suppose that $K=3$, then I assume the CDF of the distribution for $\epsilon >0$ would be
$$F(\epsilon)=\mathbb{P}(p\leq \epsilon ) = \mathbb{P}(\begin{bmatrix}p_{1}\\ p_{2}\\ p_{3} \end{bmatrix} \leq \begin{bmatrix} \epsilon\\ \epsilon\\ \epsilon \end{bmatrix}) = \mathbb{P}(p_{1}\leq \epsilon, p_{2}\leq \epsilon,p_{3}\leq \epsilon)= \frac{1}{B(\textbf{a})}\int_{0}^{\epsilon}\int_{0}^{\epsilon}\int_{0}^{\epsilon}p_{1}^{a_{1}-1}p_{2}^{a_{2}-1}p_{3}^{a_{3}-1}dp_{1}dp_{2}dp_{3} $$ $$=\frac{1}{B(\textbf{a})}\frac{\epsilon^{a_{1}}}{a_{1}}\frac{\epsilon^{a_{2}}}{a_{2}}\frac{\epsilon^{a_{3}}}{a_{3}}$$
I assume I do something totally wrong, because I do not take into account that $\sum_{i=1}^{K}p_{i}=1$. If I did then we would have to calculate the integral
$$\frac{\epsilon}{B(\textbf{a})}\int_{0}^{\epsilon}\int_{0}^{\epsilon}p_{1}^{a_{1}-1}p_{2}^{a_{2}-1}(1-p_{1}-p_{2})^{a_{3}-1}dp_{1}dp_{2} $$
where I assume that this is the integral that it is very complicated to be solved. So, the only way to compute it is through numerical approximations as pointed out here Implementation of Dirichlet cdf? ?