(i) If you take the alternative hypothesis to be
$H_a: p < 0.11,$ and you reject $H_0: p = 0.11$ or
$H_0: p \ge 0.11$ at the 5% level, then it is because
your sample proportion $\hat p$ of women developing breast
cancer is sufficiently below $0.11$ to be called
'significantly' below $0.11$ at the 5% level. This would
support the claim made in the text version of part (i).
Example: Perhaps you have $n = 1000$ women in your sample, of whom 87 developed breast cancer. Then the null distribution is $\mathsf{Binom}(n=1000,p=0.11)$ and $\hat p = 87/1000 = 0.087 < 0.11.$
Moreover, the P-value of an
exact binomial test would be $0.01977 < 0.05 = 5\%$
so we could reject $H_0$ at the 5% level and say that
$\hat p$ is significantly below $0.11$ at the 5% level
of significance. (In fact, the P-value is sufficiently small to claim significance at the 1% level. [Computations in R.]
pbinom(87, 1000, .11) # binomial CDF
[1] 0.009771923
Roughly speaking, you might say that the 'critical value'
for this left-sided test at (about) the 5% level is $c=93,$
so that any number of breast cancer cases 83 or fewer out of the 1000 subjects would lead to rejection on $H_0$ at the 5% level (and any number of cases 87 or below would
lead to rejection at the 1% level).
qbinom(.05, 1000, .11) # quantile function
[1] 94
pbinom(94, 1000, .11) # CDF
[1] 0.0562174
pbinom(93, 1000, .11)
[1] 0.04521503
qbinom(.01, 1000, .11)
[1] 88
pbinom(87, 1000, .11)
[1] 0.009771923
The figure below shows the null distribution with a vertical dotted line at the 5%
critical value for a left=tailed test.

R code for figure:
x = 0:200; PDF = dbinom(x, 1000, .11)
plot(x, PDF, type="h", col="blue",
main="Null Distribution")
abline(h=0, col="green2")
abline(v=0, col="green2")
abline(v=93.5, col="red", lwd=2, lty="dotted")