I happened to an interview question:
In Ridge regression, what does it imply if the out-of-sample performance never change however we tune the hyperparameter (the coefficient of L2 regularization)?
I only know that there exists an optimal coefficient which makes the MSE of ridge smaller than its OLS estimation. I am not sure if it is related to this question and I have the no idea for the answer.
out-of-sample, why do we specially use this? – user6703592 Jul 30 '21 at 20:30multicollinearity increases estimation variance -> ridge reduces variance -> therefore ridge reduces multicollinearity.But actually this logic does not convince me strongly, It is better to have some detailed deduction. – user6703592 Jul 31 '21 at 06:06