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Here is my question:

  1. Can the value of 'likelihood' function take the value that is greater than 1? If yes, how can we mathematically show that?

    [ I know that the likelihood function is not the probability density function and its value can be greater than 1, but I want to show my claim more properly.]

  2. When we scale the data (such as the bond yields) by multiplying 100*data, how does this operation affect the 'log-likelihood' function comparing with the case of dividing the data by 100 ((1/100)*data)?

    Thank you very much for your time and considerations. Sp

Glen_b
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  • This reads rather like homework/coursework. Is it for some subject? 2. Your first question is addressed by several posts already on site, but follows directly from the definition of likelihood and facts you've already stated.
  • – Glen_b Sep 03 '20 at 05:10
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    @Glen_b Hi Glen, This is not homework. It is a comment from a referee. Some of them asked me why the value of log-likelihood is positive and that is why I am trying to find an example of this to verify my claim. Anyway, thank you for your reply. – SChatcha Sep 03 '20 at 05:17
  • On the first question, see the links provided here, for example: https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/319859/can-log-likelihood-funcion-be-positive -- searches turn up more. I suggest you edit to focus on the second question – Glen_b Sep 03 '20 at 05:23
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    An example is easy! Take a normal distribution with small $σ$, like $σ=0.1$ say, and any sample size you like, and look at the likelihood for $\mu$. Or likelihood for $\theta$ in a uniform on $(0,\theta)$ where the largest observation is less that $\frac12$. – Glen_b Sep 03 '20 at 05:26