I have a general question about using deviance as a measure of fit in generalized linear models (i.e. multinomial, poisson etc.). I think I've gotten lost in all the equations and have totally missed the point somewhere.
Deviance is a measure of the difference between the fit of the saturated model and the suggested model. It can be kind of thought of as similar to residuals. So larger residuals means the model is having a harder time fitting the data. From my understanding that means that high deviance means a bad fit. This is why the Null deviance is always higher than the deviance of the model. So high deviance = bad fit.
However, in many cases deviance is also approximately distributed via a chi-squared statistic with degrees of freedom equal to df of the model. In this case it seems to me that high deviance = good fit as this would lead to a low p-value and lead you to conclude that the model contains information, i.e. is a good fit.
What am I missing here?