Let $\vec{x}$ be 100 iid random varibles such that $x_i \sim \mathcal {N}(0,1)$
Let $\vec{y}$ be 100 iid random varibles such that $y_i \sim \mathcal {N}(1,1)$
For this example, the signed-rank test gives the p-value $\approx 10^{-8}$
I would like to construct a naive test I call a binomial test. Let $z = (x < y)$. I use the binomial distribution to estimate the probability that $z=True$ and end up with $\hat{p} \approx 0.25$ for the above example.
My questions is: why is my test so much worse than the signed-rank test? As far as I know, the latter does not make any use of the exact magnitudes of the differences, only of their ranks. I do not need a very rigorous proof, just an intuition on how it achieves such high significance.