I am trying to run a linear regression with a dummy variable on NBA statistics with NBA Salaries as the $y$ variable, and different performance statistics as the $X$ variables. I have already ran a linear regression and found $PPG$ and $RPG$ are the only 2 significant results in determining player salary. However looking at my graphs, there only seems to be correlation between increased $PPG$ and higher salary after a player scores over 10 $PPG$, before this there is just a large chaotic cluster of data points.
To look at if there is differing determinants before and after the point of 10 $PPG$, I used a dummy variable called $PPGDummy1$ which equals 1 when player's $PPG$ is bigger than 10 and equals 0 when it is less than 10. I have run the regression for this but have no clue how to interpret the results from this regression? Here is my code for the regression:
lm2 <- lm(log(Salary) ~ PPGDummy1 + PPG + APG + RPG + SPG + BPG + FG + THREEPG + FT + Age, data = Econ_III_Data_Set)
Here is the section of results that it produces:
Estimate Std. Error t value Pr(>|t|)
(Intercept) 15.239385 0.555064 27.455 < 2e-16 ***
PPGDummy1 0.317359 0.110765 2.865 0.00431 **
PPG 0.052420 0.011527 4.548 6.55e-06 ***
APG 0.038682 0.025772 1.501 0.13390
RPG 0.084863 0.021474 3.952 8.67e-05 ***
SPG 0.143407 0.111059 1.291 0.19710
BPG -0.125260 0.118076 -1.061 0.28919
FG 0.267770 0.669408 0.400 0.68929
THREEPG -0.029914 0.328201 -0.091 0.92741
FT -0.556308 0.368705 -1.509 0.13187
Age -0.009873 0.011326 -0.872 0.38371
Unsure how to interpret the $p$-value and estimate for the $PPGDummy1$ variable in the results. Thanks in advance for your help.

exp(0.317359)corresponds to an increase of 37% in salary for players scoring over 10 PPG, all else equal. – horseoftheyear Dec 17 '19 at 20:07