Are $p(\mu \mid \sigma)$ and $p(\mu ; \sigma)$ equivalent?
I've seen the notation $p(b_i \mid T_i, \delta_i, y_i ; \theta)$ used to represent the posterior distribution for $b_i$. I am assuming that this is the posterior distribution for $b_i$ conditional on $\theta$ being fixed.
In the past I have written this as $p(b_i \mid T_i, \delta_i, y_i , \theta)$. Are both okay?