I have a sample of size $n$ from the following distribution:
$$f(x;\alpha,\beta)=\frac{\alpha x^{\alpha-1}}{\beta^\alpha}1_{0<x<\beta}\quad,\,\alpha>0$$
I found that the MLEs are
$$\hat{\beta}=x_{(n)}$$
and $$\hat{\alpha}=\frac{n}{n\log(x_{(n)})-\sum\limits_{i=1}^n \log(x_i)}$$
Now, since $\hat{\beta}$ is an order statistic, it's pretty straightforward to find its pdf and to show that it's consistent using its expectation and its variance. However, I'm having trouble showing the same for the $\hat{\alpha}$. Does $\hat{\alpha}$ following a common distribution that I can't see? Or is there another trick to use?