In Bayesian hierarchical models, the following posterior is used:
$$p(\theta,\phi|y)\propto p(y|\theta)p(\theta|\phi)p(\phi)$$
I'm trying to derive this myself but when I use Bayes' rule, I get the following.
$$p(\theta,\phi|y)=\frac{p(y|\theta,\phi)p(\theta|\phi)p(\phi)}{p(y)}$$
Are we asserting that $p(y|\theta,\phi)=p(y|\theta)$ during the derivation or is there something that I am missing?
I tried looking into this myself but I was only able to find a derivation on Wikipedia that goes like this:
$$p(\theta,\phi|y) =\frac{p(y|\theta,\phi)p(\theta,\phi)}{p(y)} =\frac{p(y|\theta)p(\theta|\phi)p(\phi)}{p(y)}$$
Here it seems that they claim $p(y|\theta,\phi)p(\theta,\phi)=p(y|\theta)p(\theta|\phi)p(\phi)$. Is this true or is something else going on?