In this paper
Cumming, G. (2014). The new statistics: Why and how. Psychological science, 25(1), 7-29.
one can read this about Cohens' d:
For two independent groups, if we assume homogeneity of variance, the pooled standard deviation within groups, $s_p$, is our standardizer, just as we use for the independent-groups t test. If we suspect the treatment notably affects variability, we might prefer the control population’s standard deviation, estimated by $s_C$ (the control group’s standard deviation), as the standardizer.
I was wondering why one should prefer the standard deviation of the control group when the treatment affects variability and whether they are references that justify this point.