This may as well go down as the silliest questions ever asked on this forum, but having received sound and meaningful answers to a previous question, i thought i will stretch my luck again.
I have been very confused for some time on the importance of statistical distributions especially as they relate to asset returns and even more specifically in asset allocation.
My question to be specific is this: Assume i have 20 years of S&P 500 monthly returns data, why should i need to assume a certain kind of distribution (i.e Normal/Johnson/Levy flight etc) for my asset allocation decision when i can simply just make my asset allocation decisions based on the historical data i have with me?