I have two questions, each of which I think might be related to each other but I'm not sure. Both concern the definition of variance as:
$var(x) = s_x^2 = \dfrac{1}{n-1} \sum_{i=1}^{n}(x_i - \bar{x})^2$
(1) How do we prove that $\sum_{i=1}^{n}(x_i - \bar{x}) = 0$? I can see that this is true using a few examples but I'm unsure how to do a general proof.
(2) In this definition, what is the conceptual motivation for having the squared difference squared, as opposed to cubed or some other exponent?
Question (1) nonetheless remains for me.
– letsmakemuffinstogether Sep 01 '18 at 17:34